Nursing Elites

1. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
• D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

2. The nurse should hold the next scheduled dose of a client's haloperidol (Haldol) based on which assessment finding(s)?

• A. Dizziness when standing.
• B. Shuffling gait and hand tremors.
• C. Urinary retention.
• D. Fever of 102°F.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A fever (D) may indicate neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially fatal complication of antipsychotics. The healthcare provider should be contacted before administering the next dose of Haldol. Dizziness when standing (A), shuffling gait and hand tremors (B), and urinary retention (C) are all adverse effects of Haldol that, while concerning, do not pose immediate life-threatening risks compared to the potential severity of NMS indicated by a fever.

3. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of what condition?

• A. Claustrophobia
• B. Acrophobia
• C. Agoraphobia
• D. Post-traumatic stress disorder

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia is the fear of crowds or being in open places, often leading individuals to avoid situations where they feel trapped, insecure, or out of control. In the case described, the client's reluctance to leave home, avoidance of work, and isolation within the house are indicative of agoraphobia. Claustrophobia (A) is the fear of closed places, while acrophobia (B) is the fear of high places. Post-traumatic stress disorder (D) involves the development of anxiety symptoms following a traumatic event, characterized by terror, fear, and helplessness, and is different from a phobia.

4. At a support meeting of parents of a teenager with polysubstance dependency, a parent states, 'Each time my son tries to quit taking drugs, he gets so depressed that I'm afraid he will commit suicide.' The nurse's response should be based on which information?

• A. Addiction is a chronic, incurable disease.
• B. Tolerance to the effects of drugs causes feelings of depression.
• C. Feelings of depression frequently lead to drug abuse and addiction.
• D. Careful monitoring should be provided during withdrawal from the drugs.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct response in this situation should focus on the connection between feelings of depression and drug abuse. Choice A is incorrect because addiction is treatable, not incurable. Choice B is incorrect as tolerance does not directly cause depression. Choice D is not the best response as the parent's concern is about the son's depression leading to suicidal thoughts, not just the withdrawal process.

5. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) repeatedly washes her hands throughout the day. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Encourage the client to talk about the underlying fears.
• C. Restrict the client's access to soap and water.
• D. Schedule a time for the client to perform the ritual.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Encouraging the client to talk about the underlying fears is the most therapeutic nursing intervention for a client with OCD who repeatedly washes her hands. By discussing the fears, the client can gain insight into the behavior and work towards reducing the compulsion. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to continue the behavior can perpetuate the OCD symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as restricting access to soap and water can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Choice D is incorrect as scheduling a time for the client to perform the ritual does not address the underlying fears driving the behavior.

Similar Questions