Nursing Elites

1. A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the LPN/LVN take?

• A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration of an antidote.
• B. Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next administration of the drug.
• C. Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration of the prescribed dosage.
• D. Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the drug.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder develops symptoms like diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness, it could indicate lithium toxicity. The appropriate action for the LPN/LVN is to notify the healthcare provider immediately of these symptoms before the next administration of the drug. This prompt communication is crucial to ensure that the healthcare provider can assess the situation, adjust the treatment plan if necessary, and prevent potential complications associated with lithium toxicity. Option A is incorrect because administering an antidote should be based on the healthcare provider's assessment. Option C is incorrect as these symptoms are not normal side effects and could indicate a serious issue. Option D is incorrect because refusing to administer the drug without consulting the healthcare provider could delay necessary interventions.

2. A 46-year-old female client has been on antipsychotic neuroleptic medication for the past three days. She has had a decrease in psychotic behavior and appears to be responding well to the medication. On the fourth day, the client's blood pressure increases, she becomes pale and febrile, and demonstrates muscular rigidity. Which action will the nurse initiate?

• A. Place the client on seizure precautions and monitor closely.
• B. Immediately transfer the client to the ICU.
• C. Report the symptoms to the charge nurse and document in the client's chart.
• D. No action is required at this time as these are known side effects of such medications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: These symptoms are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), which is a severe and life-threatening reaction to neuroleptic drugs. The major symptoms include fever, rigidity, autonomic instability, and encephalopathy. Respiratory failure, cardiovascular collapse, arrhythmias, and/or renal failure can lead to death. This is an emergency situation requiring immediate critical care, thus the correct action is to transfer the client to the ICU (B). Seizure precautions (A) are not relevant in this scenario. Merely describing the symptoms to the charge nurse and documenting them (C) or taking no action assuming these are common side effects (D) fail to address the critical nature of the situation and the urgency of immediate intervention.

3. A female client with depression attends a group and states that she sometimes misses her medication appointments because she feels very anxious about riding the bus. Which statement is the nurse's best response?

• A. Can your case manager take you to your appointments?
• B. Take your medication for anxiety before you ride the bus.
• C. Let's talk about what happens when you feel very anxious.
• D. What are some ways that you can cope with your anxiety?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the client to discuss coping mechanisms for anxiety is a supportive approach that empowers the client to manage their symptoms. Choice A may not address the client's self-management and coping skills. Choice B suggests using anxiety medication before riding the bus, which may not be the most appropriate solution. Choice C acknowledges the anxiety but does not actively involve the client in finding solutions, unlike Choice D which promotes client empowerment and self-efficacy.

4. A client with schizophrenia is experiencing auditory hallucinations. What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

• A. Encourage the client to ignore the voices.
• B. Ask the client what the voices are saying.
• C. Distract the client with a new activity.
• D. Tell the client that the voices are not real.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Asking the client what the voices are saying is the most appropriate intervention as it helps the nurse assess the content of the hallucinations and the potential risk they may pose. Encouraging the client to ignore the voices (Choice A) may not address the underlying issue or provide valuable information for the nurse. Distracting the client with a new activity (Choice C) may temporarily divert attention but does not address the hallucinations. Telling the client that the voices are not real (Choice D) may invalidate the client's experience and can lead to distrust in the therapeutic relationship.

5. A male client with schizophrenia tells the nurse that the voices he hears are saying, 'You must kill yourself.' To assist the client in coping with these thoughts, which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Tell yourself that the voices are unreasonable.'
• B. Exercise when you hear the voices.'
• C. Talk to someone when you hear the voices.'
• D. The voices aren't real, so ignore them.'

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should teach the client to use self-talk to disprove the voices. Although exercising may be helpful, the client's concrete thinking may make it difficult to understand this suggestion. Clients with schizophrenia have difficulty initiating interaction with others. Auditory hallucinations are often relentless, so it is difficult to ignore them.

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