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HESI Mental Health
1. A client on the psychiatric unit appears to imitate a certain nurse on the unit. The client seeks out this particular nurse and imitates the nurse's mannerisms. The nurse knows that the client is using which defense mechanism?
- A. Sublimation.
- B. Identification.
- C. Introjection.
- D. Repression.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is (B) Identification. In this scenario, the client is imitating the nurse's mannerisms, which is a form of identification, a defense mechanism where an individual adopts the characteristics or behaviors of someone they admire or view as powerful. (A) Sublimation involves channeling unacceptable impulses into socially acceptable actions, not imitation. (C) Introjection is the internalization of external qualities or attributes, not imitation. (D) Repression is the unconscious exclusion of painful thoughts or memories from awareness, which is not demonstrated in this case.
2. At the first meeting of a group of older adults at a daycare center for the elderly, the LPN/LVN asks one of the members what kinds of things she would like to do with the group. The older woman shrugs her shoulders and says, 'You tell me, you're the leader.' What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. Yes, I am the leader today. Would you like to be the leader tomorrow?
- B. Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?
- C. Yes, I have been assigned to be the leader of this group. I will be here for the next six weeks.
- D. Yes, I am the leader. You seem angry about not being the leader yourself.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best response for the nurse is choice B: 'Yes, I will be leading this group. What would you like to accomplish during this time?' This response acknowledges the member's comment and encourages her to share her interests, promoting engagement and active participation in group activities. Choice A is not as inclusive and may not foster collaboration within the group. Choice C focuses more on the nurse's assignment rather than addressing the member's input. Choice D assumes emotions that were not expressed by the group member and does not encourage open communication.
3. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with haloperidol (Haldol). The LPN/LVN observes the client pacing in the hallway and appearing anxious. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Ask the client to sit down and relax.
- B. Administer a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication.
- C. Encourage the client to talk about what is making him anxious.
- D. Monitor the client for adverse reactions to the medication.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of antipsychotic medication is the first action the nurse should take to manage symptoms of anxiety in a client being treated with haloperidol. The priority is to address the client's escalating anxiety and pacing behavior, which can be managed effectively by providing additional antipsychotic medication. Asking the client to sit down and relax (Choice A) may not be effective if the anxiety is due to inadequate medication levels. Encouraging the client to talk about what is making him anxious (Choice C) may not be beneficial in this acute situation and can be considered after addressing the immediate need for symptom management. Monitoring for adverse reactions (Choice D) is important but is not the first action to take when the client is showing signs of increasing anxiety and agitation.
4. A client with schizophrenia is being treated with risperidone (Risperdal). The nurse notices that the client has a shuffling gait and tremors. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of an anticholinergic medication.
- B. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
- C. Assess the client's blood glucose level.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A shuffling gait and tremors may indicate extrapyramidal side effects (EPS) from risperidone. The nurse's priority action should be to administer an anticholinergic medication as it can help alleviate these symptoms associated with EPS. Documenting the findings and monitoring the client (Choice B) are important but addressing the immediate symptoms takes precedence. Assessing the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is not directly related to the observed symptoms of shuffling gait and tremors. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, it is not the priority action when dealing with EPS symptoms.
5. The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is lethargic but responsive. The mother states, 'I think he took some of my pain pills.' During the initial assessment of the teenager, what information is most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
- A. If he has seemed depressed recently.
- B. If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
- C. If he might have taken any other drugs.
- D. If he has a desire to quit taking drugs.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a situation where a teenager is brought to the hospital after possibly ingesting pills, the most crucial information for the nurse to obtain from the parents is whether the teenager might have taken any other drugs (C). This knowledge is vital for guiding further treatment, such as administering antagonists, making it the top priority. While information about depression (A) and previous drug overdoses (B) is valuable for treatment planning, it is not as critical as knowing all substances taken. Asking about the teenager's desire to quit taking drugs (D) is not appropriate during the acute management of a drug overdose and does not take precedence over determining what other substances might have been ingested.
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