Nursing Elites

1. A client with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD) spends hours each day washing their hands. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate initially?

• A. Allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety.
• B. Set strict limits on the time allowed for handwashing.
• C. Distract the client with other activities.
• D. Encourage the client to participate in a support group.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Initially, it is most appropriate to allow the client to continue the behavior to reduce anxiety (A). For clients with OCD, abruptly stopping compulsive behaviors can lead to increased anxiety and distress. Setting strict limits (B) may exacerbate anxiety at first. Distraction with other activities (C) may not address the underlying issue effectively. While support groups (D) can be beneficial, they are typically introduced after establishing trust and gradually working on reducing compulsive behaviors.

2. A woman brings her 48-year-old husband to the outpatient psychiatric unit and describes his behavior to the admitting nurse. She states that he has been sleepwalking, cannot remember who he is, and exhibits multiple personalities. The nurse knows that these behaviors are often associated with

• A. dissociative disorder.
• B. obsessive-compulsive disorder.
• C. panic disorder.
• D. post-traumatic stress disorder.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: dissociative disorder. Sleepwalking, amnesia, and multiple personalities are examples of detaching emotional conflict from one's consciousness, which is the definition of a dissociative disorder. Obsessive-compulsive disorder (B) is characterized by persistent, recurrent intrusive thoughts or urges (obsessions) and compulsions. Panic disorder (C) is characterized by acute attacks of anxiety. Post-traumatic stress disorder (D) involves re-experiencing psychologically distressing events.

3. When caring for a client who has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be especially cautious about which of the following client behaviors?

• A. Visual hallucinations
• B. Violent behavior
• C. Bizarre behavior
• D. Loud screaming

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Violent behavior.' When a client has overdosed on PCP, the nurse should be particularly cautious about the manifestation of violent behavior. PCP overdose can lead to aggressive and unpredictable actions, posing a significant risk to both the client and healthcare providers. Visual hallucinations (choice A), bizarre behavior (choice C), and loud screaming (choice D) can also occur with PCP overdose, but the primary concern should be the potential for violent behavior, making it the most critical behavior to monitor and manage.

4. A 72-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit with a diagnosis of major depression. Which statement by the client should be of greatest concern to the nurse and require further assessment?

• A. "I will die if my cat dies."
• B. "I don't feel like eating this morning."
• C. "I just went to my friend's funeral."
• D. "Don't you have more important things to do?"

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Sometimes a client will use an analogy to describe themselves, and (A) would be an indication for conducting a suicide assessment. (B) could have a variety of etiologies, and while further assessment is indicated, this statement does not indicate potential suicide. The normal grief process differs from depression, and at this client's age, peer/cohort deaths are more frequent, so (C) would be within normal limits. (D) is an expression of low self-esteem typical of depression. Choices (B), (C), and (D) are examples of decreased energy and mood levels which would negate suicide ideation at this time.

5. An adolescent who attempted suicide with a drug overdose arrives in the emergency department with an empty 30-tablet bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst).
• B. Monitor cardiac rhythm for flat T waves.
• C. Check both serum AST and ALT levels.
• D. Prepare to administer Syrup of Ipecac.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer acetylcysteine (Mucomyst). Acetylcysteine is the antidote for acetaminophen overdose and should be administered promptly to prevent liver damage. Monitoring cardiac rhythm for flat T waves (Choice B) is not specific to acetaminophen overdose and is more related to cardiac conditions. Checking serum AST and ALT levels (Choice C) may be done later but is not the initial priority in this situation. Similarly, preparing to administer Syrup of Ipecac (Choice D) is not recommended anymore in cases of overdose as it can cause more harm.

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