Nursing Elites

1. In terms of CHN practice, how is the nurse in the community trained?

• A. nurse-midwife
• B. practice nursing
• C. generalist in nursing
• D. midwife

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In community health nursing practice, nurses are trained as generalists in nursing. They receive education that equips them to address a wide range of health concerns in the community. Choice A, nurse-midwife, is incorrect as it refers to a specific role focusing on childbirth and maternal health. Choice B, practice nursing, is vague and does not specifically describe the training of community health nurses. Choice D, midwife, is also incorrect as it refers to a specialized role in maternal and newborn care, different from the generalist training of community health nurses.

2. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). The client is complaining of chest pain. The nurse knows that pain related to an MI is due to

• A. Insufficient oxygenation of the cardiac muscle
• B. Potential circulatory overload
• C. Left ventricular overload
• D. Electrolyte imbalance

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Insufficient oxygenation of the cardiac muscle. Myocardial infarction pain is primarily caused by inadequate oxygen reaching the heart muscle, leading to ischemia and tissue damage. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because circulatory overload, left ventricular overload, and electrolyte imbalance are not the primary causes of chest pain in myocardial infarction. Circulatory overload may lead to other symptoms like edema, left ventricular overload can result in heart failure symptoms, and electrolyte imbalance may present with various manifestations, but none of these directly cause the characteristic chest pain associated with an MI.

3. The nurse administers a booster dose of DTaP (diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis) vaccine to an infant. Which level of prevention is the nurse implementing?

• A. Primary prevention.
• B. Tertiary prevention.
• C. Secondary prevention.
• D. Primary nursing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Primary prevention. Administering a booster dose of DTaP vaccine to an infant is an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent disease or injury before it occurs by preventing exposure to risk factors. Tertiary prevention focuses on reducing the impact of a disease or injury that has already occurred, while secondary prevention involves early detection and treatment to prevent the progression of disease. Choice B, tertiary prevention, is incorrect as it deals with managing the consequences of a disease rather than preventing it. Choice C, secondary prevention, is also incorrect as it focuses on early detection and treatment rather than vaccination to prevent the disease. Choice D, primary nursing, is unrelated to the level of prevention being implemented in this scenario.

4. A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Lethargy
• C. Irritability
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.

5. The nurse is evaluating the growth and development of a toddler with AIDS. The nurse would anticipate finding that the child has

• A. Achieved developmental milestones at an erratic rate
• B. Delay in musculoskeletal development
• C. Displayed difficulty with speech development
• D. Delay in achievement of most developmental milestones

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children with AIDS often experience delays in achieving developmental milestones, affecting their overall growth and development. This delay can impact various areas of development, not limited to a specific aspect like musculoskeletal or speech development. While some children may achieve milestones at varying rates (choice A), the general trend is a delay in multiple milestones (choice D). Musculoskeletal development (choice B) and speech development (choice C) may be affected but are not as comprehensive as the delay in most developmental milestones.

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