Nursing Elites

1. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?

• A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
• B. Presence of serous drainage
• C. Edema around the wound
• D. Absence of granulation tissue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.

2. A client has been admitted to the Coronary Care Unit with a myocardial infarction. Which nursing diagnosis should have priority?

• A. Pain related to ischemia
• B. Risk for altered elimination: constipation
• C. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias
• D. Anxiety related to pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain related to ischemia. This nursing diagnosis should have priority because addressing the pain caused by ischemia is crucial in managing the client's myocardial infarction. Pain management is essential not only for the client's comfort but also for improving outcomes and reducing complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the priority in this scenario. Risk for altered elimination: constipation (Choice B) is not as immediate a concern as managing the client's pain. Risk for complication: dysrhythmias (Choice C) may be a potential concern but addressing the client's pain takes precedence. Anxiety related to pain (Choice D) is important to address but should come after managing the pain itself.

3. A healthcare professional is planning to collect a liquid stool specimen from a client for ova and parasites. Inaccurate test results may result if the healthcare professional:

• A. Refrigerates the collected specimen
• B. Collects the specimen in a sterile container
• C. Delays the collection of the specimen
• D. Uses a non-contaminated collection container

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Refrigeration can kill the ova and parasites present in the stool specimen, leading to inaccurate test results. Storing the specimen in a cold environment can disrupt the integrity of the parasites and ova, affecting the accuracy of the test. Collecting the specimen in a sterile container (Choice B) is the correct procedure to prevent external contamination. Delaying the collection of the specimen (Choice C) may affect the freshness of the sample but does not directly impact the test results. Using a non-contaminated collection container (Choice D) is essential to maintain the sample's integrity but does not relate to the risk of killing ova and parasites through refrigeration.

4. The nurse is preparing a handout on infant feeding to be distributed to families visiting the clinic. Which notation should be included in the teaching materials?

• A. Solid foods are introduced one at a time beginning with cereal.
• B. Finely ground meat should be avoided early to provide iron.
• C. Egg white is not recommended early to increase protein intake.
• D. Solid foods should not be mixed with formula in a bottle.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Introducing solid foods one at a time, starting with cereal, is recommended to monitor for any food allergies or intolerances in infants. Choice B is incorrect as finely ground meat should be introduced later due to the risk of choking and is not necessary for iron intake. Choice C is incorrect as egg white should be avoided early due to the risk of allergies. Choice D is incorrect as solid foods should not be mixed with formula in a bottle to prevent overfeeding and promote healthy eating habits.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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