HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?
- A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
- B. Presence of serous drainage
- C. Edema around the wound
- D. Absence of granulation tissue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.
2. When moving a patient up in bed using a drawsheet with the help of another nurse, in which order will the nurses perform the steps, starting with the first one?
- A. Grasp the drawsheet firmly near the patient.
- B. Move the patient and drawsheet to the desired position.
- C. Position one nurse at each side of the bed.
- D. Place the drawsheet under the patient from shoulder to thigh.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When moving a patient up in bed with a drawsheet and the assistance of another nurse, it is important to have one nurse positioned at each side of the bed initially. This allows for proper coordination and support during the patient movement. Placing the drawsheet under the patient from shoulder to thigh, grasping the drawsheet firmly near the patient, and moving the patient and drawsheet to the desired position follow after the nurses are positioned on each side of the bed. The correct sequence ensures a safe and coordinated approach to repositioning the patient in bed.
3. Which client statement from the assessment data is likely to explain their noncompliance with propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal)?
- A. I have problems with diarrhea.
- B. I have difficulty falling asleep.
- C. I have diminished sexual function.
- D. I often feel jittery.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Propranolol hydrochloride (Inderal) is known to cause side effects such as diminished sexual function, which can lead to noncompliance with the medication due to its impact on quality of life. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to be associated with propranolol hydrochloride. While diarrhea, difficulty falling asleep, and feeling jittery are possible side effects of propranolol, they are not as commonly reported as diminished sexual function. Therefore, choice C is the most likely reason for the client's noncompliance.
4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer an intramuscular injection to a young adult client. Which of the following injection sites is the safest for this client?
- A. Ventrogluteal
- B. Dorsogluteal
- C. Deltoid
- D. Vastus lateralis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The ventrogluteal site is considered the safest for intramuscular injections in young adult clients due to its location away from major nerves and blood vessels. The ventrogluteal site is preferred over the dorsogluteal site, as the latter is associated with a higher risk of injury to the sciatic nerve. The deltoid site is commonly used for vaccines but may not be suitable for all intramuscular injections due to smaller muscle mass. The vastus lateralis site is often used in infants and young children, but in young adults, the ventrogluteal site is preferred for safety and efficacy.
5. An 80-year-old client admitted with a diagnosis of a possible cerebral vascular accident has had a blood pressure ranging from 180/110 to 160/100 over the past 2 hours. The nurse has also noted increased lethargy. Which assessment finding should the nurse report immediately to the healthcare provider?
- A. Slurred speech
- B. Incontinence
- C. Muscle weakness
- D. Rapid pulse
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Slurred speech is a classic sign of a worsening stroke, suggesting a potential blockage or hemorrhage affecting speech centers in the brain. Prompt reporting of this symptom to the healthcare provider is crucial for immediate evaluation and intervention. While incontinence (Choice B) is important to monitor, it is not considered an immediate priority over slurred speech in this context. Muscle weakness (Choice C) and rapid pulse (Choice D) are also relevant in stroke assessment, but slurred speech takes precedence due to its strong association with neurological deficits in the setting of a possible cerebral vascular accident.
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