HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?
- A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
- B. Presence of serous drainage
- C. Edema around the wound
- D. Absence of granulation tissue
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.
2. A nurse is caring for a postoperative client following knee arthroplasty who requires thigh-high compression sleeves. What should the nurse do?
- A. Make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeve.
- B. Apply the sleeve tightly to prevent blood clots.
- C. Ensure the sleeve is snug and comfortable.
- D. Check that the sleeve is loose enough to avoid constriction.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to make sure two fingers can fit under the sleeve. This allows for proper circulation and ensures that the sleeve is not too tight, which can lead to complications such as impaired blood flow or tissue damage. Choice B is incorrect because applying the sleeve tightly can actually cause harm rather than prevent blood clots. Choice C is incorrect as snugness alone may not guarantee proper fit. Choice D is incorrect as a sleeve that is too loose can be ineffective in providing the necessary compression.
3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?
- A. INR of 1.5
- B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
- C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
- D. aPTT of 70 seconds
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.
4. The caregiver is assessing an 8-month-old child with atonic cerebral palsy. Which statement from the caregiver supports the presence of this problem?
- A. When I place my finger in the left hand, the baby does not respond with a grasp.
- B. My baby does not seem to track objects when I move toys in front of their face.
- C. When it thundered loudly last night, the baby did not even startle.
- D. When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The statement 'When I place the baby in a supine position, that's how I find the baby' supports the presence of atonic cerebral palsy. In this type of cerebral palsy, the child may have poor muscle tone, making it difficult for them to roll from a back-lying position. This inability to roll indicates a lack of muscle tone, which is a characteristic feature of atonic cerebral palsy. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the muscle tone issues typical of atonic cerebral palsy. Choice A focuses on a lack of grasp response, which may suggest motor issues but not specifically atonic cerebral palsy. Choice B refers to visual tracking, and choice C is about the startle reflex, neither of which are defining characteristics of atonic cerebral palsy.
5. A client with heart failure is being taught by a nurse on reducing daily sodium intake. Which factor is most crucial in determining the client’s ability to learn new dietary habits?
- A. The client's involvement in planning the change
- B. The cost of the dietary changes
- C. The availability of low-sodium foods
- D. The client’s previous dietary knowledge
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The client’s previous dietary knowledge is the most critical factor in determining the ability to learn new dietary habits. Understanding the client's existing dietary knowledge helps tailor the teaching to build upon what they already know. While client involvement in planning changes can increase adherence and motivation, the foundational knowledge is essential for effective learning. The cost of dietary changes and the availability of low-sodium foods are important considerations but not as crucial as the client's existing knowledge.
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