Nursing Elites

1. When changing the client's dressing, which observation should the nurse report to the client's surgeon for a client recovering from an appendectomy for a ruptured appendix with a surgical wound healing by secondary intention?

• A. A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin
• B. Presence of serous drainage
• C. Edema around the wound
• D. Absence of granulation tissue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A halo of erythema on the surrounding skin may indicate an infection or inflammation of the wound site, which is critical to report to the surgeon. Erythema, redness, and warmth are signs of inflammation that could potentially be a sign of an infected wound. Serous drainage is a common and expected finding in healing wounds, indicating a normal healing process. Edema around the wound might be expected due to the body's response to tissue injury. The absence of granulation tissue in a wound healing by secondary intention may not be an immediate concern as it forms during the later stages of wound healing.

2. A client is immobile due to a cast, and a nurse is assisting in the use of a fracture bedpan. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Place the shallow end of the fracture pan under the client’s buttocks.
• B. Encourage the client to remain immobile on the fracture pan for 20 minutes.
• C. Keep the bed flat while the client is on the fracture pan.
• D. Hyperextend the client’s back while the fracture pan is in place.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action when using a fracture bedpan for an immobile client is to place the shallow end of the pan under the client's buttocks. This positioning helps in proper collection of feces without causing discomfort or injury. Encouraging the client to try to defecate for 20 minutes (Choice B) is inappropriate and unrealistic, as defecation should not be forced or timed. Keeping the bed flat (Choice C) is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help promote proper positioning for bedpan use. Hyperextending the client's back (Choice D) is contraindicated and can lead to discomfort and potential injury to the client.

3. A client with a terminal illness is being cared for by a nurse. Which of the following findings indicates that the client's death is imminent?

• A. Cold extremities
• B. Increased appetite
• C. Elevated blood pressure
• D. Increased level of consciousness

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cold extremities are a common sign observed in clients nearing death. This occurs due to decreased blood circulation as the body's systems begin to shut down. Cold extremities indicate poor perfusion and reduced function of vital organs. Increased appetite (Choice B) is not typically seen in clients approaching death; instead, a decreased appetite is more common. Elevated blood pressure (Choice C) is not a typical finding in clients nearing the end of life, as blood pressure tends to decrease. An increased level of consciousness (Choice D) is also not indicative of imminent death, as clients near death often experience decreased level of consciousness or become unresponsive.

4. A client with a history of heart failure is admitted with weight gain and peripheral edema. Which medication should the LPN/LVN anticipate being prescribed?

• A. Lisinopril (Zestril)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Metoprolol (Lopressor)
• D. Simvastatin (Zocor)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Furosemide (Lasix) is the correct answer. In a client with heart failure experiencing weight gain and peripheral edema, the priority is to manage fluid overload. Furosemide is a loop diuretic commonly prescribed to reduce excess fluid in heart failure patients. Lisinopril (Zestril) is an ACE inhibitor used to treat hypertension and heart failure but does not directly address fluid overload. Metoprolol (Lopressor) is a beta-blocker that helps manage heart failure symptoms but does not primarily target fluid retention. Simvastatin (Zocor) is a statin used to lower cholesterol levels and is not indicated for managing fluid overload in heart failure.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who has experienced a stroke causing total paralysis of the right side. To help maintain joint function and minimize the disability from contractures, passive range of motion (ROM) will be initiated. When should the nurse begin this therapy?

• A. After the acute phase of the disease has passed.
• B. As soon as the ability to move is lost.
• C. Once the patient enters the rehab unit.
• D. When the patient requests it.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Passive ROM exercises should begin as soon as the patient loses the ability to move the extremity or joint. Initiating passive ROM early helps prevent contractures and maintain joint function. Choice A is incorrect because delaying passive ROM until after the acute phase may lead to irreversible contractures. Choice C is not the best option as waiting until the patient enters the rehab unit delays crucial preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM should not be based on patient requests but on clinical indications and best practices.

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