a client is receiving intravenous potassium chloride for hypokalemia which action should the nurse take to prevent complications during the infusion
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Nursing Elites

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Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. A client is receiving intravenous potassium chloride for hypokalemia. Which action should the nurse take to prevent complications during the infusion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to prevent complications during the infusion of potassium chloride is to monitor the infusion site for signs of infiltration. Rapid administration can lead to adverse effects, including cardiac arrhythmias. Using a syringe pump is not typically necessary for this infusion. Flushing the IV line with normal saline is a good practice but not directly related to preventing complications specifically during the infusion of potassium chloride.

2. Which of the following is a priority assessment for a client receiving intravenous vancomycin?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, Hearing acuity. Vancomycin is known to cause ototoxicity, which can result in hearing loss. Monitoring the client's hearing acuity is crucial to detect any early signs of ototoxicity. Assessing respiratory rate, blood pressure, and urine output are important assessments in general patient care but are not the priority when specifically monitoring for vancomycin-induced ototoxicity.

3. Since children with attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) take medication for long periods of time, side effects must be considered. How often should children be assessed for side effects of the drug therapy?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Children with ADHD who are on long-term medication therapy should be assessed for side effects every 6 months. This timeframe allows healthcare providers to monitor the effects of the medication and make any necessary adjustments. Checking every 2 months (Choice A) may be too frequent and not practical for routine monitoring, while checking every 4 or 8 months (Choices B and D) may lead to missing potential side effects or delays in addressing them.

4. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of visual sensory/perceptual alterations. This problem is based on which etiology?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral vision. In open-angle glaucoma, decreased peripheral vision is a characteristic symptom resulting from increased intraocular pressure. This visual impairment can lead to sensory/perceptual alterations. Choice A, limited eye movement, is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma. Choice C, blurred distance vision, is more commonly seen in conditions like myopia or presbyopia. Choice D, photosensitivity, is not a typical manifestation of open-angle glaucoma and is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or certain medications.

5. What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.

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