a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed alogliptin the nurse should include which instruction in the clients teaching plan
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 prescribed alogliptin?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider. Alogliptin is associated with an increased risk of pancreatitis. Therefore, clients should be instructed to report any signs of pancreatitis, such as severe abdominal pain, to their healthcare provider promptly. This is essential for early detection and management of this serious adverse effect. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because they do not address the specific side effect associated with alogliptin.

2. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed exenatide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Exenatide, a medication commonly used in type 2 diabetes, is known to cause gastrointestinal side effects, such as nausea. Monitoring for nausea is essential as it can lead to decreased appetite and potential weight loss, affecting the nutritional status of the client. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are important to monitor in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with exenatide use. Pancreatitis is a rare but serious adverse effect of exenatide, which requires immediate medical attention if suspected.

3. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with bipolar disorder is prescribed quetiapine, the nurse should monitor for weight gain as a potential adverse effect. Quetiapine is known to commonly cause weight gain, which can have implications for the client's overall health. Regular monitoring of weight can help in early detection and management of this side effect.

4. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.

5. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed apixaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Apixaban is an anticoagulant medication that works by preventing blood clots. While this is beneficial for individuals with a history of deep vein thrombosis, it also increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for bleeding is crucial to ensure the client's safety and to take appropriate actions if necessary. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because apixaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern when administering apixaban is monitoring for potential bleeding complications.

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