Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Loss of reflexes in the legs
• B. Decreased peripheral sensation
• C. Respiratory distress
• D. Muscle weakness in the arms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.

2. What intervention should be implemented by the LPN to reduce the risk of aspiration in a client with a nasogastric tube receiving continuous enteral feedings?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees.
• B. Check residual volumes every 4 hours.
• C. Verify tube placement every shift.
• D. Flush the tube with water every 4 hours.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30-45 degrees is crucial in reducing the risk of aspiration because it helps keep the gastric contents lower than the esophagus, thereby promoting proper digestion and preventing reflux. This position also aids in reducing the likelihood of regurgitation and aspiration of gastric contents. Checking residual volumes every 4 hours is important for monitoring feeding tolerance but does not directly address the risk of aspiration. Verifying tube placement every shift is essential for ensuring the tube is correctly positioned within the gastrointestinal tract but does not directly reduce the risk of aspiration. Flushing the tube with water every 4 hours may help maintain tube patency and prevent clogging, but it does not specifically address the risk of aspiration associated with nasogastric tube feedings.

3. The LPN is instructing a client with high cholesterol about diet and lifestyle modifications. What comment from the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. If I exercise at least twice weekly for one hour, I will lower my cholesterol.
• B. I need to avoid eating proteins, including red meat.
• C. I will limit my intake of beef to 4 ounces per week.
• D. My blood level of low-density lipoproteins needs to increase.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Limiting intake of beef to 4 ounces per week is an effective dietary modification to manage high cholesterol. Choice A is incorrect because the frequency and duration of exercise alone may not be sufficient to lower cholesterol significantly. Choice B is incorrect as proteins, including lean sources like poultry and fish, can be a part of a healthy diet. Choice D is incorrect as low-density lipoproteins, known as bad cholesterol, should be decreased, not increased, for heart health.

4. A client with a history of congestive heart failure (CHF) is admitted with dyspnea and a productive cough. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform?

• A. Measure the client's urine output.
• B. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
• C. Assess the client's apical pulse.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Auscultating lung sounds is crucial for assessing the extent of congestion in a client with CHF. The presence of crackles or wheezing can indicate fluid accumulation in the lungs, a common complication of CHF. Monitoring urine output (Choice A) is important to assess renal function but is not the priority in this situation. While assessing the apical pulse (Choice C) and checking blood pressure (Choice D) are important in managing CHF, they do not provide immediate information about the respiratory status and congestion level in the lungs, making auscultating lung sounds the most critical assessment.

5. A healthcare provider is preparing to insert an IV catheter into a client's arm before starting IV fluid therapy. Which of the following interventions should the provider implement to prevent infection?

• A. Thread the IV catheter so that the hub rests at the insertion site
• B. Shave excess hair from around the insertion site
• C. Cleanse the site with hydrogen peroxide before IV catheter insertion
• D. Palpate the site carefully just before inserting the IV catheter

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Inserting the IV catheter so that the hub rests at the insertion site reduces the risk of contamination along the length of the catheter. This technique helps prevent introducing microbes into the bloodstream during the catheter insertion process. Shaving excess hair is unnecessary and can increase the risk of skin irritation and infection. Cleansing the site with hydrogen peroxide is outdated as it can cause tissue damage and delay wound healing. Palpating the site just before insertion can introduce bacteria from the skin surface into the insertion site, increasing the risk of infection.

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