HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment finding is most concerning?
- A. Loss of reflexes in the legs
- B. Decreased peripheral sensation
- C. Respiratory distress
- D. Muscle weakness in the arms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.
2. While caring for a client who begins to experience a generalized seizure while standing in her room, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place a pad under the client’s head
- B. Hold the client’s limbs tightly to prevent injury
- C. Lift the client into bed with the help of other staff members
- D. Insert a bite block into the client’s mouth
Correct answer: A
Rationale: During a seizure, the priority is to protect the client's head and ensure their safety. The nurse should guide the client to the ground if possible and place a soft pad or a folded cloth under the head to prevent injury. Restraining the client's limbs can result in injury and should be avoided. Lifting the client can also lead to injuries during a seizure. Inserting a bite block is contraindicated as it can cause damage to the teeth, oral tissues, and obstruct the airway. Therefore, the correct action is to place a pad under the client's head to protect them during the seizure.
3. A client who is receiving chemotherapy for cancer treatment is experiencing nausea and vomiting. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Offer the client small, frequent meals.
- B. Provide antiemetic medication as prescribed.
- C. Encourage the client to drink clear liquids.
- D. Assist the client with oral care.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best intervention for a client experiencing chemotherapy-induced nausea and vomiting is to provide antiemetic medication as prescribed. This medication helps in managing and reducing nausea and vomiting, providing relief to the client. Offering small, frequent meals (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the symptoms. Encouraging clear liquid intake (Choice C) may not be effective in controlling nausea and vomiting associated with chemotherapy. Assisting with oral care (Choice D) is important for overall comfort but may not directly address the symptoms of nausea and vomiting.
4. A client scheduled for abdominal surgery reports being worried. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Offer information on a relaxation technique and ask if the client is interested in trying it.
- B. Request a social worker to see the client to discuss meditation.
- C. Attempt to use biofeedback techniques with the client.
- D. Tell the client many people feel the same way before surgery and to think of something else.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Offering relaxation techniques addresses the client's immediate concern by providing a proactive approach to managing anxiety. It shows empathy and offers a practical solution. Requesting a social worker for meditation (Choice B) may not be the most direct response to the client's immediate worry. Attempting biofeedback (Choice C) may not be suitable without the client's interest or consent. Telling the client to think of something else (Choice D) dismisses the client's feelings and does not provide constructive support.
5. During an admission assessment, a healthcare professional finds a client's radial pulse rate to be 68/min and the simultaneous apical pulse to be 84/min. What is the client’s pulse deficit (per minute)?
- A. 16
- B. 12
- C. 6
- D. 14
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The pulse deficit is calculated by finding the difference between the apical and radial pulse rates. In this case, the difference is 84 - 68 = 16. This indicates that there is a pulse deficit of 16 beats per minute. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the difference between the two pulse rates.
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