Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of Guillain-Barre syndrome. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

• A. Loss of reflexes in the legs
• B. Decreased peripheral sensation
• C. Respiratory distress
• D. Muscle weakness in the arms

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Respiratory distress. In Guillain-Barre syndrome, respiratory distress is the most concerning finding as it can indicate progression to respiratory failure, which is a life-threatening complication. Loss of reflexes in the legs and muscle weakness in the arms are common manifestations of the condition but may not be as immediately life-threatening as respiratory distress. Decreased peripheral sensation is also a common symptom but is not as critical as respiratory distress in terms of immediate patient safety and management.

2. While observing a student nurse administering a narcotic analgesic IM injection without aspirating, what should the nurse do?

• A. Ask the student, 'What did you forget to do?'
• B. Stop and explain why aspiration is needed.
• C. Quietly state, 'You forgot to aspirate.'
• D. Walk up and whisper in the student's ear, 'Stop. Aspirate. Then inject.'

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When the nurse observes a student nurse making a mistake during a procedure, such as not aspirating before administering a medication, the nurse should provide immediate, discreet feedback to correct the error. Walking up and whispering in the student's ear to stop, aspirate, and then inject is appropriate as it corrects the mistake while maintaining the student's dignity and confidence. Option A is not as effective as it indirectly addresses the issue. Option B is not the best approach as the student needs immediate correction. Option C is not ideal as loudly stating the mistake may embarrass the student and is not necessary for a discreet correction.

3. A nurse on a medical-surgical unit is receiving a change-of-shift report for four clients. Which of the following clients should the nurse see first?

• A. A client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty
• B. A client who has acute abdominal pain rated 4 on a scale from 0 to 10
• C. A client who has a UTI and low-grade fever
• D. A client who has pneumonia and an oxygen saturation of 96%

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should see the client who has new onset of dyspnea 24 hours after a total hip arthroplasty first. New onset of dyspnea, especially after surgery, can indicate a serious complication such as a pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis. It is essential to assess this client promptly to rule out potentially life-threatening conditions. Acute abdominal pain, a UTI with low-grade fever, and pneumonia with an oxygen saturation of 96% are important issues but do not indicate the urgency and potential severity of a post-operative complication like pulmonary embolism or deep vein thrombosis.

4. A PN is assigned to care for a newborn with a neural tube defect. Which dressing, if applied by the PN, would need no further intervention by the charge nurse?

• A. Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment
• B. Moist sterile non-adherent dressing
• C. Dry sterile dressing that is occlusive
• D. Sterile occlusive pressure dressing

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Moist sterile non-adherent dressing. A moist sterile non-adherent dressing is suitable for covering a neural tube defect and would not require further intervention. This type of dressing helps prevent the dressing from sticking to the wound, minimizing trauma during dressing changes. Choice A, Telfa dressing with antibiotic ointment, is not ideal for a neural tube defect as the ointment may not be necessary and can complicate wound care. Choice C, dry sterile dressing that is occlusive, is not recommended for a neural tube defect as it may not provide the necessary environment for proper wound healing. Choice D, sterile occlusive pressure dressing, is excessive for a neural tube defect and may cause unnecessary pressure on the wound site.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?

• A. Fresh fruits
• B. Grilled chicken
• C. Whole grain bread
• D. Canned soup

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soup is often high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet prescribed for hypertension. Fresh fruits (A) are generally low in sodium and are a healthy choice. Grilled chicken (B) is a lean protein option that is suitable for a low-sodium diet. Whole grain bread (C) is also a good choice as it is not typically high in sodium. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should recommend avoiding canned soup to adhere to the low-sodium dietary restrictions.

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