HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1
1. The nurse is assessing a client who has just received a blood transfusion. The client reports chills and back pain. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Slow the rate of transfusion.
- B. Administer an antipyretic.
- C. Stop the transfusion immediately.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Stop the transfusion immediately. Chills and back pain are indicative of a possible transfusion reaction, which is a critical situation. Stopping the transfusion is crucial to prevent further complications and ensure the client's safety. Slowing the rate of transfusion (Choice A) is not sufficient in this case as immediate action is required. Administering an antipyretic (Choice B) may help with fever but does not address the potential severe reaction. Notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) can be done after stopping the transfusion, but the priority is to halt the infusion to prevent harm.
2. A client is prescribed warfarin (Coumadin) for atrial fibrillation. Which dietary instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Increase intake of green leafy vegetables
- B. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
- C. Increase intake of foods rich in vitamin C
- D. Limit intake of dairy products
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Avoid foods high in vitamin K.' Vitamin K can decrease the effectiveness of warfarin, so it is essential for clients on warfarin therapy to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Green leafy vegetables are high in vitamin K, so choice A is incorrect. Choices C and D are unrelated to the dietary restrictions needed for clients taking warfarin and are therefore incorrect.
3. The nurse is assessing an older resident with a history of Benign Prostatic Hypertrophy and identifies a distended bladder. What should the nurse do?
- A. Stand the client to void and run tap water within hearing distance before catheterizing
- B. Straight catheterize and if the residual urine volume is greater than 100 mL, clamp catheter
- C. Catheterize q2h and place in an indwelling catheter at the end of the prescribed 24hr period
- D. Catheterize with an indwelling catheter and if the residual volume is greater than 100 mL, inflate the balloon
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Prompt and appropriate management of urinary retention prevents complications like infection and bladder damage.
4. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease (CKD) is being discharged with a prescription for epoetin alfa (Epogen). What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
- B. Monitor your blood pressure regularly.
- C. Expect to feel better immediately.
- D. Avoid foods high in potassium.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Monitor your blood pressure regularly.' Epoetin alfa (Epogen) can lead to hypertension as a side effect, so it is essential for clients with CKD to monitor their blood pressure regularly. Choice A is incorrect because epoetin alfa does not need to be taken on an empty stomach. Choice C is incorrect because the client should not expect immediate improvement upon starting the medication. Choice D is incorrect because while monitoring potassium intake is important in CKD, the question specifically pertains to epoetin alfa and its side effects, not potassium intake.
5. A client with a diagnosis of rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Increases joint lubrication
- B. Reduces inflammation by suppressing the immune system
- C. Enhances bone density
- D. Stimulates cartilage regeneration
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Methotrexate is an immunosuppressant that works by suppressing the immune system, thereby reducing inflammation in rheumatoid arthritis. Methotrexate does not directly increase joint lubrication (Choice A) as its primary action is on the immune system. Choices C and D are incorrect since methotrexate does not enhance bone density or stimulate cartilage regeneration. It is crucial for healthcare providers to understand the mechanism of action of medications to provide safe and effective care to patients.
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