Nursing Elites

1. In a disaster area, a nurse assesses an adult male with partial-thickness burns on his lower legs, approximately 10% of his lower body. Which color of triage tag should the nurse place on this client?

• A. Yellow.
• B. Black.
• C. Red.
• D. Green.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A yellow triage tag should be placed on the client with partial-thickness burns covering 10% of his lower body. Yellow tags indicate delayed treatment, suitable for serious injuries that are not immediately life-threatening. Black tags are used for deceased individuals, red tags for immediate treatment of life-threatening injuries, and green tags for minor injuries.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a suspected stroke. Which assessment finding is most indicative of a stroke?

• A. Chest pain
• B. Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking
• C. Gradual onset of weakness in the legs
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sudden confusion and difficulty speaking. These are classic signs of a stroke, indicating a neurological deficit that requires urgent medical attention. Choices A, C, and D are less indicative of a stroke. Chest pain is more commonly associated with cardiac issues, gradual onset of weakness in the legs could be related to other conditions like peripheral neuropathy, and nausea/vomiting may suggest gastrointestinal problems rather than a stroke.

3. A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?

• A. Bone marrow suppression of white blood cells causes insufficient cells to phagocytize organisms.
• B. Exposure to multiple environmental infectious agents overburdens the immune system until it fails.
• C. The humoral immune response lacks B cells that form antibodies and opportunistic infections result.
• D. Inadequate numbers of T lymphocytes are available to initiate cellular immunity and macrophages.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: With a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter, the client's immune system is severely compromised, leading to opportunistic infections.

4. The parents of a child who has had a myringotomy are instructed by the nurse to place the child in which position?

• A. Supine
• B. On the affected side
• C. On the unaffected side
• D. In Trendelenburg's position

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placing the child on the affected side after a myringotomy facilitates ear drainage. This position helps prevent accumulation of fluids in the ear canal, aiding in the healing process. Placing the child in the supine position (Choice A) or on the unaffected side (Choice C) may not be as effective in promoting drainage. The Trendelenburg's position (Choice D) with the head lower than the body is used for conditions requiring increased venous return, not for post-myringotomy care.

5. What should the nurse assess in an infant who has been diagnosed with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis?

• A. A history of diarrhea following each feeding
• B. Gastric pain evidenced by vigorous crying
• C. Poor appetite due to a poor sucking reflex
• D. An olive-shaped mass right of the midline

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. In hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, a key assessment finding is an olive-shaped mass in the right upper quadrant of the abdomen, to the right of the midline. This mass is palpable and represents the hypertrophied pyloric muscle. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because although they may be present in infants with feeding problems, the definitive assessment for hypertrophic pyloric stenosis is the presence of an olive-shaped mass on the right side of the abdomen, not a history of diarrhea, gastric pain, or poor appetite.

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