Nursing Elites

1. How does the home care nurse determine that a 78-year-old client is unable to remain in his current residence alone?

• A. The goals set by the client
• B. The learning level of the client
• C. Assessing the home environment
• D. The distractions in the client's home

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is assessing the home environment. This process is vital in evaluating whether an elderly client can safely live independently. Factors like safety hazards and the client's ability to handle daily activities are considered during this assessment. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because determining the client's ability to remain in his residence alone relies more on evaluating the home environment for safety and suitability rather than the client's goals, learning level, or distractions in the home.

2. The HCP gives a pregnant woman a prescription for one prenatal vitamin with iron daily and tells her that she needs to increase foods in her diet because her hemoglobin is 8.2 grams/dL. When a list of iron-rich foods is given to the client, she tells the PN that she is a vegetarian and does not eat anything that "bleeds." Which instruction should the PN provide?

• A. All below
• B. Increase green leafy vegetables in the diet
• C. Oatmeal is a good choice for breakfast
• D. Add lentils and black beans to soup

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Vegetarians can increase their iron intake through plant-based sources such as green leafy vegetables, oatmeal, and legumes, which are rich in iron.

3. A client who had a left hemicolectomy is experiencing a low-grade fever on post-operative day three. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Encourage deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer.
• B. Administer antipyretic medication as prescribed.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
• D. Increase the client’s fluid intake.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A low-grade fever on post-operative day three can be a sign of atelectasis, a common post-operative complication. Encouraging deep breathing and the use of the incentive spirometer can help prevent and treat this condition. Atelectasis is often due to shallow breathing, so option A is the best initial action to promote lung expansion. Administering antipyretic medication (option B) may help reduce the fever but does not directly address the underlying cause. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately (option C) is not necessary at this point unless other concerning symptoms are present. Increasing the client’s fluid intake (option D) is important for overall recovery but is not the priority in this scenario.

4. At 1200, the practical nurse learns that a client's 0900 dose of an anticonvulsant was not given. The next scheduled dose is at 2100. Which action should the PN take?

• A. Administer half of the missed dose immediately
• B. Administer the missed dose as soon as possible
• C. Give the missed dose with the next scheduled dose
• D. Withhold the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering the missed dose as soon as possible is crucial in this situation. Missing an anticonvulsant dose can lead to breakthrough seizures, which are harmful to the client. Administering the missed dose promptly helps maintain the therapeutic level of the medication and reduces the risk of seizure activity. Giving half the dose may not provide adequate protection against seizures. Delaying the dose until the next scheduled time increases the time the client is without the medication, potentially increasing the risk of seizures. Withholding the missed dose unless seizure activity occurs is not recommended, as prevention is key in managing anticonvulsant therapy.

5. A client is recovering from abdominal surgery and has a nasogastric (NG) tube in place. The nurse notes that the client is experiencing nausea despite the NG tube being patent. What is the nurse's best action?

• A. Increase the suction on the NG tube.
• B. Administer an antiemetic as prescribed.
• C. Irrigate the NG tube with saline.
• D. Reposition the client to the left side.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering an antiemetic as prescribed is the best action for the nurse to take when a client with a patent NG tube is experiencing nausea. This intervention can help relieve nausea effectively. Increasing suction on the NG tube (Choice A) may not address the underlying cause of the nausea and could potentially lead to complications. Irrigating the NG tube with saline (Choice C) is not indicated for addressing nausea in this scenario. Repositioning the client to the left side (Choice D) is not the priority intervention for nausea in a client with a patent NG tube.

Similar Questions