Nursing Elites

1. A child with a diagnosis of pyloric stenosis is scheduled for surgery. What preoperative intervention is important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Administering intravenous fluids
• B. Monitoring for signs of infection
• C. Monitoring for signs of dehydration
• D. Monitoring for signs of pain

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct preoperative intervention for a child with pyloric stenosis is to monitor for signs of dehydration. Pyloric stenosis can lead to vomiting, which can result in dehydration. Monitoring for signs of dehydration is crucial to ensure the child's fluid balance is maintained. Administering intravenous fluids, although important for managing dehydration and electrolyte imbalances, would typically be done postoperatively rather than as a preoperative intervention. Monitoring for signs of infection is important but not specific to the preoperative period for pyloric stenosis. Monitoring for signs of pain is also important but may not be the most critical preoperative intervention in this scenario.

2. What should be used to feed an infant born with a unilateral cleft lip and palate?

• A. Plastic spoon
• B. Cross-cut nipple
• C. Parenteral infusion
• D. Rubber-tipped syringe

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A cross-cut nipple is the most appropriate choice for feeding an infant with a unilateral cleft lip and palate. Using a cross-cut nipple helps regulate the flow of milk, making feeding easier for the infant and reducing the risk of aspiration. Plastic spoons, parenteral infusion, and rubber-tipped syringes are not recommended for feeding infants with cleft lip and palate as they can pose risks such as choking, aspiration, or inadequate milk intake. It is essential to choose a feeding method that minimizes these risks and ensures proper nutrition for the infant.

3. A child has been admitted to the pediatric unit with a severe asthma attack. What type of acid-base imbalance should the nurse expect the child to develop?

• A. metabolic alkalosis due to insufficient production of acid metabolites
• B. respiratory alkalosis due to depressed respirations and retention of carbon dioxide
• C. respiratory acidosis due to impaired respirations and increased formation of carbonic acid
• D. metabolic acidosis due to the kidneys' inability to compensate for decreased carbonic acid formation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a severe asthma attack, the child is likely to develop respiratory acidosis. This occurs due to impaired respirations, leading to the retention of carbon dioxide and the formation of carbonic acid. Choice A is incorrect as metabolic alkalosis is not expected in this situation. Choice B is incorrect as respiratory alkalosis does not align with the scenario of impaired respirations in severe asthma attacks. Choice D is also incorrect as it describes metabolic acidosis, which is not typically associated with severe asthma attacks.

4. During an oral cavity assessment of a 6-month-old infant, the parent inquires about which teeth will erupt first. How should the healthcare provider respond?

• A. Incisors
• B. Canines
• C. Upper molars
• D. Lower molars

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Incisors are the teeth that typically erupt first in infants, usually around 6 months of age. These teeth play a crucial role in biting and cutting food. Canines, upper molars, and lower molars are not the primary teeth to erupt in infants. Canines usually erupt after incisors, while molars, whether upper or lower, come in later during the teething process.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Full-thickness burns involve the destruction of all layers of skin, extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn causes severe damage and loss of sensation due to nerve destruction. Choice A, erythema and pain, describes superficial burns (first-degree). Choice B, skin showing erythema followed by blister formation, describes partial-thickness burns (second-degree). Choice D, destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone, goes beyond the description of full-thickness burns.

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