Nursing Elites

1. A child with a diagnosis of leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Monitoring for signs of infection
• B. Providing nutritional support
• C. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
• D. Monitoring for signs of pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy is monitoring for signs of infection. Chemotherapy can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Detecting and managing infections promptly is crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Providing nutritional support is important, but infection prevention takes precedence due to the immediate threat it poses to the child's health. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is relevant in leukemia due to decreased platelet count, but infection surveillance is more critical. Monitoring for signs of pain is essential, but addressing infections promptly is the priority to prevent further deterioration in the child's condition.

2. Why is the infant scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine instead of the oral vaccine, as asked by the parents?

• A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
• B. Both vaccines produce the same results and are equally safe, according to consensus.
• C. The intramuscular vaccine is preferred over the oral vaccine due to cost considerations, unless contraindicated.
• D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine over the oral vaccine due to its superior safety profile. Intramuscular administration ensures better immunogenicity and protection against poliovirus. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular vaccine is preferred for safety reasons. Choice C is incorrect because the recommendation is based on safety, not cost. Choice D is incorrect as the CDC recommendation is not solely based on immunocompromised status but rather on the overall safety and efficacy of the vaccine.

3. A 3-year-old child has a sudden onset of respiratory distress. The mother denies any recent illnesses or fever. You should suspect

• A. croup
• B. epiglottitis
• C. lower respiratory infection
• D. foreign body airway obstruction

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a 3-year-old child presenting with sudden respiratory distress without fever or recent illness, the most likely cause is a foreign body airway obstruction. Foreign body airway obstruction can lead to a sudden onset of respiratory distress as it blocks the air passage. Croup typically presents with a barking cough and stridor, often preceded by a viral illness. Epiglottitis is characterized by high fever, drooling, and a muffled voice. Lower respiratory infections usually present with symptoms such as cough, fever, and chest congestion. Therefore, in this case, the absence of recent illness or fever makes foreign body airway obstruction the most likely cause of the respiratory distress.

4. What would be important for the nurse to include when teaching an adolescent about tinea pedis?

• A. Keep your feet moist and exposed to the air as much as possible.
• B. Dry the area between your toes thoroughly.
• C. Wear nylon or synthetic socks every day.
• D. Walk barefoot in the school locker room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Dry the area between your toes thoroughly.' When educating an adolescent about tinea pedis, emphasis should be placed on keeping the feet dry, especially between the toes, to minimize the risk of fungal infection. Choice A is incorrect as keeping the feet moist can exacerbate the condition. Choice C is incorrect because nylon or synthetic socks can trap moisture, promoting fungal growth. Choice D is incorrect as walking barefoot in locker rooms increases the risk of contracting tinea pedis from contaminated surfaces.

5. A newborn is diagnosed with metatarsus adductus. The parents ask the nurse how this occurred. Which response by the nurse would be most appropriate?

• A. This condition is due to a genetic defect in the bones.
• B. It's most likely from how the baby was positioned in utero.
• C. They really don't know what causes this condition.
• D. There is probably an underlying deformity of the baby's hip.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Metatarsus adductus is a condition characterized by the inward turning of the front part of the foot. It is often caused by the baby's position in the womb, leading to the foot adopting this position. Choice A is incorrect because metatarsus adductus is primarily related to positioning in utero rather than a genetic defect. Choice C is incorrect as there is an understanding of the common cause of this condition. Choice D is incorrect because metatarsus adductus specifically refers to a foot deformity, not a hip deformity.

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