HESI LPN
Pediatric Practice Exam HESI
1. A child with a diagnosis of leukemia is receiving chemotherapy. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Monitoring for signs of infection
- B. Providing nutritional support
- C. Monitoring for signs of bleeding
- D. Monitoring for signs of pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a child with leukemia receiving chemotherapy is monitoring for signs of infection. Chemotherapy can suppress the immune system, increasing the risk of infections. Detecting and managing infections promptly is crucial to prevent complications and improve outcomes. Providing nutritional support is important, but infection prevention takes precedence due to the immediate threat it poses to the child's health. Monitoring for signs of bleeding is relevant in leukemia due to decreased platelet count, but infection surveillance is more critical. Monitoring for signs of pain is essential, but addressing infections promptly is the priority to prevent further deterioration in the child's condition.
2. What is the most appropriate method to feed an infant born with a unilateral cleft lip and palate?
- A. Plastic spoon
- B. Cross-cut nipple
- C. Parenteral infusion
- D. Rubber-tipped syringe
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A cross-cut nipple is the most appropriate method to feed an infant born with a unilateral cleft lip and palate. Using a cross-cut nipple allows for easier feeding by modifying the flow of milk, which helps in reducing the risk of aspiration in infants with this condition. Plastic spoon, parenteral infusion, and rubber-tipped syringe are not suitable for feeding infants with cleft lip and palate. Feeding an infant with a cleft lip and palate requires special considerations to ensure safe and effective nutrition delivery.
3. A parent and 4-year-old child who recently emigrated from Colombia arrive at the pediatric clinic. The child has a temperature of 102°F, is irritable, and has a runny nose. Inspection reveals a rash and several small, red, irregularly shaped spots with blue-white centers in the mouth. What illness does the nurse suspect the child has?
- A. Measles
- B. Chickenpox
- C. Fifth disease
- D. Scarlet fever
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse should suspect measles based on the symptoms described, including the presence of Koplik spots (small, red spots with blue-white centers in the mouth). Measles typically presents with fever, irritability, runny nose, and a rash that begins on the face and spreads downward. Chickenpox (choice B) presents with vesicular lesions in different stages of healing and usually starts on the trunk. Fifth disease (choice C) presents with a 'slapped cheek' rash on the face and can cause joint pain. Scarlet fever (choice D) is characterized by a sandpaper-like rash, fever, and strawberry tongue.
4. Why is the infant scheduled to receive the intramuscular polio vaccine instead of the oral vaccine, as asked by the parents?
- A. The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular vaccine because it is safer.
- B. Both vaccines produce the same results and are equally safe, according to consensus.
- C. The intramuscular vaccine is preferred over the oral vaccine due to cost considerations, unless contraindicated.
- D. The U.S. Centers for Disease Control and Prevention recommends the intramuscular vaccine unless the infant or a family member is immunocompromised.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The American Academy of Pediatrics recommends the intramuscular polio vaccine over the oral vaccine due to its superior safety profile. Intramuscular administration ensures better immunogenicity and protection against poliovirus. Choice B is incorrect as the intramuscular vaccine is preferred for safety reasons. Choice C is incorrect because the recommendation is based on safety, not cost. Choice D is incorrect as the CDC recommendation is not solely based on immunocompromised status but rather on the overall safety and efficacy of the vaccine.
5. Which treatment is instituted for the therapeutic management of minimal change nephrotic syndrome?
- A. corticosteroids
- B. antihypertensive agents
- C. long-term diuretics
- D. increased fluids to promote diuresis
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corticosteroids are the mainstay of treatment for minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they help reduce inflammation and decrease proteinuria. Antihypertensive agents are used to manage high blood pressure often associated with kidney disease but are not the primary treatment for this condition. Long-term diuretics are not typically used in the management of minimal change nephrotic syndrome as they can worsen fluid and electrolyte imbalances. Increasing fluids to promote diuresis is not recommended in this condition as it can lead to further fluid retention and edema.
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