Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding as rivaroxaban increases the risk of bleeding. Common adverse effects of rivaroxaban include bleeding events, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. It is crucial for the nurse to assess for these signs to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for bleeding is essential due to the anticoagulant properties of rivaroxaban.

2. What information should the practical nurse provide to a female client who started taking an oral sulfonamide for a urinary tract infection the previous day and reports slight anorexia, while also experiencing urinary frequency?

• A. Take the medication with an antacid instead of cranberry juice to reduce the anorexia.
• B. Continue to take the medication with a sip of cranberry juice, restricting fluids until the frequency is controlled.
• C. Continue to drink cranberry juice, but take the medicine on an empty stomach with a full glass of water.
• D. Take the medication with a spoonful of ice cream or applesauce and avoid drinking cranberry juice.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The practical nurse should advise the client to take sulfonamides with a full glass of water to help prevent crystalluria. It is essential to take the medication on an empty stomach, ideally 1 hour before eating or 2 hours after eating to maximize its absorption and effectiveness. Continuing to drink cranberry juice is beneficial, but it is important to take the medicine separately to enhance its therapeutic action.

3. When should a client receiving insulin lispro administer this medication?

• A. Before meals
• B. After meals
• C. At bedtime
• D. Before sleep

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered shortly before meals. This timing helps to synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing blood glucose levels in the body.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Headache
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.

5. The nurse is studying antacids that contain magnesium and calcium for the pharmacology exam. The student nurse remembers that these antacids should be used with caution in patients with which condition?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Renal failure
• C. Heart failure
• D. Peptic ulcer disease

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Magnesium and calcium can accumulate in patients with renal failure, leading to toxicity.

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