Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed rivaroxaban, the nurse should monitor for signs of bleeding as rivaroxaban increases the risk of bleeding. Common adverse effects of rivaroxaban include bleeding events, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or blood in the urine or stool. It is crucial for the nurse to assess for these signs to prevent complications and ensure the client's safety. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because rivaroxaban does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. Monitoring for bleeding is essential due to the anticoagulant properties of rivaroxaban.

2. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

3. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed cinacalcet. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypocalcemia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Cinacalcet is a medication that can lower calcium levels, leading to hypocalcemia. Monitoring for signs of low calcium levels such as muscle cramps, tingling sensations, and abnormal heart rhythms is crucial to prevent complications in clients with chronic kidney disease.\nIncorrect Choices Rationale: B) Hypercalcemia is the opposite effect of cinacalcet; C) Hyperkalemia and D) Hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with cinacalcet use.

4. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes mellitus is prescribed dulaglutide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Pancreatitis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Nausea.' Dulaglutide, a medication commonly used in the management of type 2 diabetes, can lead to gastrointestinal side effects such as nausea. While hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia are potential concerns in diabetes management, they are not typically associated with dulaglutide use. Pancreatitis is a serious adverse effect of some diabetes medications, but it is not a common side effect of dulaglutide.

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