Nursing Elites

1. During a well-child check-up, what respiratory assessment finding should the nurse anticipate in a 3-year-old?

• A. A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
• B. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields
• C. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration
• D. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 3-year-old child. This is considered normal in this age group as their respiratory rate is generally higher compared to adults. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields are not an expected finding in a 3-year-old. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration indicate increased work of breathing and are abnormal. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi are characteristic of wheezing, which is not typically expected in a healthy 3-year-old during a routine check-up.

2. While flushing the proximal port of a triple lumen central venous catheter with heparin solution, the nurse meets resistance. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Remove the cap and apply direct gentle pressure with the syringe
• B. Contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray
• C. Cover the cap with tape and label the port as being obstructed
• D. Remove the catheter while applying gentle pressure at the insertion site

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When encountering resistance while flushing a central venous catheter, it is crucial to contact the healthcare provider regarding the need for a chest x-ray. This resistance may indicate a blockage within the catheter, a kink, or other issues that could compromise the integrity of the catheter or pose a risk to the patient. It is essential to assess the situation through imaging to determine the appropriate course of action. Option A is incorrect because applying direct pressure could cause damage to the catheter or dislodge any potential blockage. Option C is incorrect as labeling the port as obstructed without further assessment may delay necessary interventions. Option D is incorrect as removing the catheter without proper evaluation can lead to complications and should only be done under the guidance of a healthcare provider.

3. The nurse discontinues a continuous IV heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the client's first dose of enoxaparin. Prior to giving this subcutaneous injection, which assessment finding requires additional intervention by the nurse?

• A. Current lab report indicates an Aptt at 1.5 times the client's control
• B. The client states that his right calf is aching and wants pain medication
• C. The spouse is assisting the client who is shaving with an electric razor
• D. Several bruised areas are noted on the client's upper extremities bilaterally

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bruised areas on the client's upper extremities bilaterally indicate an increased risk of bleeding, which requires careful assessment before administering enoxaparin. Bruising suggests potential issues with clotting and hemostasis, making it crucial for the nurse to further evaluate the client's bleeding risk. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the assessment of bleeding risk associated with enoxaparin administration and are therefore incorrect. Choice A provides information about the client's Aptt, which is not directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk for enoxaparin. Choice B addresses pain management, and Choice C involves the client's daily activities with no direct link to the bleeding risk assessment.

4. When lactulose (Cephulac) 30 ml QID is prescribed for a male client with advanced cirrhosis, and he complains that it causes diarrhea, what action should the nurse take in response to the client’s statement?

• A. Explain that diarrhea is expected, but the drug reduces ammonia levels
• B. Document that the client is non-compliant with his treatment plan
• C. Tell the client to be concerned about more significant side effects of this drug
• D. Obtain a prescription for loperamide (Imodium) 4mg PO PRN diarrhea

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose when used to reduce ammonia levels in cirrhosis. It helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the colon, thereby reducing its levels in the blood. Option B is incorrect because it is essential for the nurse to educate the client about the expected side effects of the medication rather than assuming non-compliance. Option C is incorrect as it instills unnecessary fear in the client by suggesting more significant side effects without addressing the current concern. Option D is incorrect as loperamide should not be given automatically for diarrhea caused by lactulose, as the diarrhea is a therapeutic effect of the medication in this context.

5. A client receiving chemotherapy has severe neutropenia. Which snack is best for the nurse to recommend to the client?

• A. Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey
• B. Peanuts in the shell, roasted or unroasted
• C. Aged farmer’s cheese with celery sticks
• D. Baked apples topped with dried raisins

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Plain yogurt sweetened with raw honey. This option is the best choice for a client with severe neutropenia undergoing chemotherapy because it is less likely to harbor harmful bacteria, which could cause infections due to the weakened immune system. Peanuts in the shell (choice B) may carry a risk of contamination, while aged farmer's cheese with celery sticks (choice C) and baked apples topped with dried raisins (choice D) may not be as safe as plain yogurt for a client with severe neutropenia.

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