HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. During a well-child check-up, what respiratory assessment finding should the nurse anticipate in a 3-year-old?
- A. A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute
- B. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields
- C. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration
- D. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A resting respiratory rate of 40 breaths per minute is within the expected range for a 3-year-old child. This is considered normal in this age group as their respiratory rate is generally higher compared to adults. Bronchovesicular breath sounds in the peripheral lung fields are not an expected finding in a 3-year-old. Retractions in the intercostal spaces with each inspiration indicate increased work of breathing and are abnormal. High-pitched whistling sounds over the bronchi are characteristic of wheezing, which is not typically expected in a healthy 3-year-old during a routine check-up.
2. After implementing a new fall prevention protocol on the nursing unit, which action by the nurse-manager best evaluates the protocol’s effectiveness?
- A. Compare the number of falls that occurred before and after protocol implementation
- B. Analyze data that reflects the unit’s costs incurred due to the new protocol
- C. Conduct a chart review on the unit to determine the number of clients at risk for falling
- D. Consult with the physical therapist to evaluate the benefits of the new fall protocol
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The best way to evaluate the effectiveness of a new fall prevention protocol is by comparing the number of falls that occurred before and after its implementation. This direct comparison helps in assessing the impact of the protocol on reducing fall rates. Choices B, C, and D do not directly measure the effectiveness of the protocol. Analyzing costs incurred (Choice B), conducting a chart review (Choice C), or consulting with a physical therapist (Choice D) may provide valuable information but do not specifically evaluate the protocol's effectiveness in preventing falls.
3. An older male was recently admitted to the rehabilitation unit with unilateral neglect syndrome as a result of a cerebrovascular accident (CVA). Which action should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Provide additional light in the room to promote sensory stimulation
- B. Teach the client to turn his head from side to side for visual scanning
- C. Place a clock and calendar in the room to improve orientation
- D. Use hand and arm gestures to improve communication and comprehension
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Teaching the client to turn his head from side to side for visual scanning is essential in addressing unilateral neglect syndrome caused by a cerebrovascular accident. This action helps improve visual awareness and assists the client in overcoming the neglect of one side of the body. Providing additional light for sensory stimulation (Choice A) may not directly address the issue of unilateral neglect. Placing a clock and calendar in the room (Choice C) may be helpful for orientation but does not specifically target unilateral neglect. Using hand and arm gestures for communication (Choice D) may aid in communication but does not directly address the visual scanning deficits associated with unilateral neglect syndrome.
4. The healthcare provider changes a client’s medication prescription from IV to PO administration and doubles the dose. The nurse notes in the drug guide that the prescribed medication, when given orally, has a high first-pass effect and reduces bioavailability. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Continue administering the medication via the IV route.
- B. Give half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider.
- C. Administer the medication orally as prescribed.
- D. Consult with the pharmacist regarding the prescription change.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to consult with the pharmacist regarding the change in prescription. With the high first-pass effect of the medication when given orally, it reduces its bioavailability, meaning a dosage adjustment may be necessary to achieve the desired therapeutic effect. Continuing to administer the medication via the IV route (choice A) is not appropriate as the prescription has been changed to oral administration. Giving half the prescribed oral dose until consulting the provider (choice B) is not recommended without proper guidance, which should come from consulting with the pharmacist. Simply administering the medication orally as prescribed (choice C) without addressing the potential issue of reduced bioavailability may lead to suboptimal treatment outcomes.
5. A client has had several episodes of clear, watery diarrhea that started yesterday. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed PRN antiemetic
- B. Assess the client for the presence of hemorrhoids
- C. Check the client’s hemoglobin level
- D. Review the client’s current list of medications
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement in a client experiencing clear, watery diarrhea is to review the client's current list of medications. Certain medications can cause diarrhea as a side effect, so identifying any potential culprits is essential. Administering an antiemetic (Choice A) is not appropriate for diarrhea, as antiemetics are used to control nausea and vomiting, not diarrhea. Assessing for hemorrhoids (Choice B) is not the priority when the client is experiencing watery diarrhea; addressing the root cause is crucial. Checking the client’s hemoglobin level (Choice C) is not the immediate action needed for this situation as it does not directly address the cause of diarrhea.
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