HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Practice Questions
1. A 1-year-old child has a congenital cardiac malformation that causes right-to-left shunting of blood through the heart. What clinical finding should the healthcare provider expect?
- A. Proteinuria
- B. Peripheral edema
- C. Elevated hematocrit
- D. Absence of pedal pulses
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In a congenital cardiac malformation causing right-to-left shunting, the nurse should expect an elevated hematocrit. This occurs because the body compensates for decreased oxygenation by producing more red blood cells. Proteinuria (Choice A) is not typically associated with congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting. Peripheral edema (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions causing left-sided heart failure. Absence of pedal pulses (Choice D) is not a typical finding in congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting.
2. A client with bipolar disorder is admitted to the psychiatric unit in a manic state. What is the most therapeutic nursing intervention?
- A. Allow the client to engage in any activity they choose.
- B. Provide a structured environment with reduced stimuli.
- C. Encourage the client to express their thoughts freely.
- D. Place the client in a room with another client for socialization.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a manic state, individuals with bipolar disorder may exhibit hyperactivity, impulsivity, and reduced need for sleep. Providing a structured environment with reduced stimuli is the most therapeutic nursing intervention as it can help manage the client's excessive energy and prevent overstimulation. Choice A is incorrect as allowing the client to engage in any activity they choose may exacerbate their symptoms or lead to risky behaviors. Choice C, encouraging the client to express their thoughts freely, may not be appropriate during a manic state as it can further escalate their racing thoughts. Choice D, placing the client in a room with another client for socialization, may not be beneficial during a manic episode as it could increase stimulation and potentially lead to agitation.
3. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?
- A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
- B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
- C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
- D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.
4. After clearing the airway of a newborn who is not in distress, what is the most important action for you to take?
- A. Apply free-flow oxygen
- B. Clamp and cut the cord
- C. Keep the newborn warm
- D. Obtain an APGAR score
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Keeping the newborn warm is crucial as newborns are at high risk of hypothermia due to their large body surface area and limited subcutaneous fat. Hypothermia can lead to complications such as respiratory distress, hypoglycemia, and metabolic acidosis. Providing warmth helps maintain the newborn's body temperature and supports physiological processes, promoting overall well-being. Applying free-flow oxygen is not necessary if the newborn is not in distress. Clamping and cutting the cord can be done after addressing the immediate need for warmth. Obtaining an APGAR score is important for assessing the newborn's overall condition but ensuring warmth takes precedence to prevent complications related to hypothermia.
5. Although there is projected to be a small surplus of nurses by 2030, some states will continue to see nursing shortages. Which of the following is the best explanation for this situation?
- A. Healthcare legislation that impacts nursing salaries in some states
- B. Workforce availability
- C. Aging of the baby boomers, resulting in a younger nursing workforce
- D. Population declines
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The best explanation for the continued nursing shortages in some states despite an overall projected surplus by 2030 is workforce availability. This factor directly impacts the number of nurses available in certain regions. Choice A about healthcare legislation affecting nursing salaries does not directly address the availability of nurses. Choice C is incorrect as the aging of the baby boomers would typically imply an older nursing workforce instead of a younger one. Choice D regarding population declines does not necessarily relate to the availability of nurses in specific states.