Nursing Elites

1. A 1-year-old child has a congenital cardiac malformation that causes right-to-left shunting of blood through the heart. What clinical finding should the healthcare provider expect?

• A. Proteinuria
• B. Peripheral edema
• C. Elevated hematocrit
• D. Absence of pedal pulses

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a congenital cardiac malformation causing right-to-left shunting, the nurse should expect an elevated hematocrit. This occurs because the body compensates for decreased oxygenation by producing more red blood cells. Proteinuria (Choice A) is not typically associated with congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting. Peripheral edema (Choice B) is more commonly seen in conditions causing left-sided heart failure. Absence of pedal pulses (Choice D) is not a typical finding in congenital cardiac malformations causing right-to-left shunting.

2. An infant with a congenital heart defect is being given gavage feedings. The parents ask the nurse why this is necessary. How should the nurse respond?

• A. It limits the chance of vomiting.
• B. It allows the feeding to be administered rapidly.
• C. The energy that would have been expended on sucking is conserved.
• D. The quantity of nutritional liquid can be regulated better than with a bottle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gavage feedings are necessary for infants with congenital heart defects to conserve the infant's energy by eliminating the need for sucking. This is important because sucking requires energy expenditure, which can be taxing for infants with cardiac defects. Choice A is incorrect as gavage feedings do not primarily limit the chance of vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because the speed of feeding administration is not the primary reason for using gavage feedings in this case. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of the quantity of nutritional liquid is not the main purpose of gavage feedings in infants with congenital heart defects.

3. At 0345, you receive a call for a woman in labor. Upon arriving at the scene, you are greeted by a very anxious man who tells you that his wife is having her baby 'now.' This man escorts you into the living room where a 25-year-old woman is lying on the couch in obvious pain. The woman states that her contractions are occurring every 4 to 5 minutes and lasting approximately 30 seconds each. Which of the following questions would be most appropriate to ask at this point?

• A. Has your bag of waters broken yet?
• B. Have you had regular prenatal care?
• C. At how many weeks gestation are you?
• D. How many other children do you have?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Asking about the gestational age is crucial in determining the stage of labor and assessing potential complications. This information helps in understanding the progress of labor and making appropriate decisions regarding the management of the delivery process. Choices A, B, and D are not as pertinent at this point in providing immediate care or assessing the situation compared to knowing the gestational age.

4. What is an early sign of congestive heart failure that the nurse should recognize?

• A. tachypnea
• B. bradycardia
• C. inability to sweat
• D. increased urinary output

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Tachypnea is an early sign of congestive heart failure that nurses should recognize. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, which can be an indication of the body's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output in congestive heart failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is a slow heart rate and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Inability to sweat (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are not specific early signs of congestive heart failure and are not typically recognized as such.

5. The nurse is caring for a child who has been admitted for a sickle cell crisis. What would the nurse do first to provide adequate pain management?

• A. Administer a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) as ordered.
• B. Use guided imagery and therapeutic touch.
• C. Administer meperidine as ordered.
• D. Initiate pain assessment with a standardized pain scale.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Initiating pain assessment with a standardized pain scale is crucial in effectively managing pain during a sickle cell crisis. This initial step helps the nurse understand the severity of the pain, which guides subsequent interventions. Administering medications, such as NSAIDs or meperidine, should only be done after a thorough pain assessment to ensure appropriate and individualized treatment. Using guided imagery and therapeutic touch may be beneficial as adjunct interventions, but they should not replace the essential first step of assessing the pain level accurately.

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