HESI LPN
Mental Health HESI Practice Questions
1. A male client with mental illness and substance dependency tells the mental health nurse that he has started using illegal drugs again and wants to seek treatment. Since he has a dual diagnosis, which person is best for the nurse to refer this client to first?
- A. The emergency room nurse.
- B. His case manager.
- C. The clinic healthcare provider.
- D. His support group sponsor.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The case manager (B) is responsible for coordinating community services, making them the best person to refer the client to first as they can describe available treatment options. The emergency room nurse (A) is unnecessary unless the client's behaviors pose imminent threats. The clinic healthcare provider (C) and support group sponsor (D) may be useful but coordinating a treatment program tailored to the client's needs is the priority in this scenario.
2. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
- D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.
3. A client with a diagnosis of major depressive disorder is prescribed fluoxetine (Prozac). What is the most important side effect for the LPN/LVN to monitor?
- A. Weight gain.
- B. Sexual dysfunction.
- C. Nausea.
- D. Constipation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Sexual dysfunction. When monitoring a client taking fluoxetine (Prozac), the LPN/LVN should prioritize observing for sexual dysfunction. This side effect is crucial to monitor as it can significantly impact the client's quality of life and may affect their adherence to the medication. Weight gain (choice A) is a possible side effect of fluoxetine but is not as critical as sexual dysfunction in terms of monitoring. Nausea (choice C) and constipation (choice D) are common side effects of fluoxetine, but they are generally less concerning compared to the impact of sexual dysfunction on the client's well-being and treatment compliance.
4. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of what condition?
- A. Claustrophobia
- B. Acrophobia
- C. Agoraphobia
- D. Post-traumatic stress disorder
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia is the fear of crowds or being in open places, often leading individuals to avoid situations where they feel trapped, insecure, or out of control. In the case described, the client's reluctance to leave home, avoidance of work, and isolation within the house are indicative of agoraphobia. Claustrophobia (A) is the fear of closed places, while acrophobia (B) is the fear of high places. Post-traumatic stress disorder (D) involves the development of anxiety symptoms following a traumatic event, characterized by terror, fear, and helplessness, and is different from a phobia.
5. A 45-year-old female client is admitted to the psychiatric unit for evaluation. Her husband states that she has been reluctant to leave home for the last six months. The client has not gone to work for a month and has been terminated from her job. She has not left the house since that time. This client is displaying symptoms of which disorder?
- A. Claustrophobia.
- B. Acrophobia.
- C. Agoraphobia.
- D. Necrophobia.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, Agoraphobia. Agoraphobia involves the fear of situations where escape might be difficult, often leading to the individual avoiding public spaces or leaving their home. In this case, the client's reluctance to leave home, not going to work, and staying indoors for an extended period align with the symptoms of agoraphobia. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Claustrophobia is the fear of confined spaces, acrophobia is the fear of heights, and necrophobia is the fear of death or dead things, none of which are consistent with the client's symptoms described in the scenario.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access