Nursing Elites

1. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their healthcare provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.

2. You are managing a 10-month-old infant who has had severe diarrhea and vomiting for 3 days and is now showing signs of shock. You have initiated supplemental oxygen therapy and elevated the lower extremities. En route to the hospital, you note that the child's work of breathing has increased. What must you do first?

• A. Lower the extremities and reassess the child
• B. Begin positive pressure ventilations and reassess the child
• C. Place a nasopharyngeal airway and increase the oxygen flow
• D. Listen to the lungs with a stethoscope for abnormal breath sounds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the infant is presenting with signs of respiratory distress, as evidenced by the increased work of breathing. Lowering the extremities can help reduce the workload on the diaphragm and improve respiratory mechanics. This action can be beneficial in optimizing the infant's breathing before considering more invasive interventions. Option B, initiating positive pressure ventilations, should be considered if the infant's condition deteriorates further and not as the first step. Option C, placing a nasopharyngeal airway and increasing oxygen flow, is not indicated as the primary intervention for increased work of breathing. Option D, listening to the lungs with a stethoscope, may provide additional information but is not the most urgent action needed in this situation.

3. The nurse is reviewing the laboratory test results of a child diagnosed with disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). What would the nurse interpret as indicative of this disorder?

• A. Shortened prothrombin time
• B. Increased fibrinogen level
• C. Positive fibrin split products
• D. Increased platelets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Positive fibrin split products are indicative of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC). In DIC, there is widespread clotting and subsequent consumption of clotting factors, leading to the formation of fibrin split products. A shortened prothrombin time (Choice A) is not typically seen in DIC as it indicates faster clotting, which is opposite to the pathophysiology of DIC. An increased fibrinogen level (Choice B) may be observed in the early stages of DIC due to the compensatory increase in production, but it is not a definitive indicator. Increased platelets (Choice D) may be seen in the early stages of DIC due to the body's attempt to compensate for clot formation, but it is not a specific finding for DIC.

4. A child is admitted with extensive burns. The nurse notes burns on the child’s lips and singed nasal hairs. The nurse should suspect that the child has a(n)

• A. chemical burn
• B. inhalation injury
• C. electrical burn
• D. hot-water scald

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Burns on the lips and singed nasal hairs are indicative of an inhalation injury. This suggests that the child has likely inhaled hot gases or smoke, leading to damage in the respiratory tract. Choice A, chemical burn, is incorrect because the symptoms described are more aligned with inhalation rather than direct contact with chemicals. Choice C, electrical burn, is incorrect as there are no mentions of contact with an electrical source. Choice D, hot-water scald, is also incorrect as the presentation of burns on the lips and singed nasal hairs is not characteristic of scald injuries.

5. A nurse is planning an evening snack for a child receiving Novolin N insulin. What is the reason for this nursing action?

• A. To encourage the child to stay on the diet.
• B. Energy is needed for immediate utilization.
• C. Extra calories will help the child gain weight.
• D. Nourishment helps to counteract late insulin activity.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Novolin N insulin peaks in the evening, leading to a higher risk of hypoglycemia during this time. Providing a snack before bedtime helps counteract the late insulin activity and prevent hypoglycemia. Choice A is incorrect as the primary reason for the snack is related to insulin activity rather than diet compliance. Choice B is not directly related to the timing of Novolin N insulin administration. Choice C is unrelated to the specific need for a snack in the evening to address insulin activity.

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