Nursing Elites

1. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their healthcare provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.

2. An infant with a congenital heart defect is being given gavage feedings. The parents ask the nurse why this is necessary. How should the nurse respond?

• A. It limits the chance of vomiting.
• B. It allows the feeding to be administered rapidly.
• C. The energy that would have been expended on sucking is conserved.
• D. The quantity of nutritional liquid can be regulated better than with a bottle.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gavage feedings are necessary for infants with congenital heart defects to conserve the infant's energy by eliminating the need for sucking. This is important because sucking requires energy expenditure, which can be taxing for infants with cardiac defects. Choice A is incorrect as gavage feedings do not primarily limit the chance of vomiting. Choice B is incorrect because the speed of feeding administration is not the primary reason for using gavage feedings in this case. Choice D is incorrect as the regulation of the quantity of nutritional liquid is not the main purpose of gavage feedings in infants with congenital heart defects.

3. After completing an oral examination of a healthy 2-year-old child, the parent asks when the child should first be taken to the dentist. When is the most appropriate time in the child’s life for the nurse to suggest?

• A. Before starting school
• B. Within the next few months
• C. When the first deciduous teeth are lost
• D. At the next dental visit of a family member

Correct answer: B

Rationale: It is recommended that a child should visit the dentist within the next few months after turning two years old. This allows for early dental check-ups to monitor oral health, detect any issues early on, and establish a good oral hygiene routine. Choice A ('Before starting school') is not as specific and may delay the child's first dental visit. Choice C ('When the first deciduous teeth are lost') is too late for the first dental visit, as preventive care should start earlier. Choice D ('At the next dental visit of a family member') is not ideal as the child's dental needs should be addressed independently of family members' visits.

4. Which of the following findings would indicate altered mental status in a small child?

• A. Recognizing the parents
• B. Showing fright at the EMT-B's presence
• C. Displaying a lack of attention to the EMT-B's presence
• D. Maintaining consistent eye contact with the EMT-B

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a small child, displaying a lack of attention to the EMT-B's presence would indicate altered mental status. This behavior suggests a diminished level of consciousness or awareness, which is concerning. Recognizing the parents (Choice A) is a normal and expected behavior for a child. Showing fright at the EMT-B's presence (Choice B) may indicate fear or anxiety but not necessarily altered mental status. Maintaining consistent eye contact with the EMT-B (Choice D) may indicate engagement or curiosity rather than altered mental status.

5. A healthcare provider is assessing a child with suspected rheumatic fever. What clinical manifestation is the provider likely to observe?

• A. Jaundice
• B. Peeling skin on the hands and feet
• C. High fever
• D. Severe joint pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Severe joint pain is a classic symptom of rheumatic fever, resulting from inflammation of the joints. Rheumatic fever primarily affects the joints, heart, skin, and the central nervous system. Jaundice (Choice A) is not typically associated with rheumatic fever. Peeling skin on the hands and feet (Choice B) is more characteristic of conditions like Kawasaki disease. While high fever (Choice C) can be present in rheumatic fever, it is not as specific or characteristic as severe joint pain.

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