Nursing Elites

1. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their healthcare provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Live vaccines, like the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) vaccine, should not be administered to immunosuppressed infants, such as those undergoing chemotherapy. The weakened immune system of these infants may not be able to handle live vaccines safely, potentially leading to severe complications. Therefore, it is crucial to avoid giving live vaccines like MMR to infants receiving chemotherapy. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age is not the main concern in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect because although MMR vaccination is important for disease prevention, it should not be given to immunosuppressed infants. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is needed to prevent potential harm from live vaccines in immunosuppressed infants.

2. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who says, “My baby stopped breathing for a while.” The infant continues to have difficulty breathing, with prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?

• A. Birth occurred before 32 weeks’ gestation
• B. Lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds
• C. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds
• D. Retractions and use of accessory respiratory muscles

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles can be signs of respiratory distress, which may indicate trauma such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS). Shaken baby syndrome can result in brain injury and respiratory compromise, leading to breathing difficulties. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be associated with SBS. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation is more related to prematurity rather than SBS. The lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds, as well as previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds, are not specific indicators of SBS.

3. An order is written for an isotonic enema for a 2-year-old child. What is the maximum amount of fluid the nurse should administer without a specific order from the health care provider?

• A. 100 to 150 mL
• B. 155 to 250 mL
• C. 255 to 360 mL
• D. 365 to 500 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: For a 2-year-old child, the maximum recommended amount of fluid for an isotonic enema is between 155 to 250 mL to prevent overdistension and potential harm. Choice A (100 to 150 mL) is too low and may not be effective in achieving the desired outcome. Choices C (255 to 360 mL) and D (365 to 500 mL) exceed the safe range for a 2-year-old child and can lead to overdistension, electrolyte imbalance, or other complications. Therefore, the correct answer is B.

4. What behavior does the nurse anticipate when feeding a newborn with choanal atresia?

• A. Chokes during feeding
• B. Experiences swallowing challenges
• C. Lacks hunger cues
• D. Takes about half of the feeding

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When feeding a newborn with choanal atresia, the nurse can anticipate that the infant may take only part of the feeding before pausing for air. This is due to the fact that infants with choanal atresia struggle to breathe through their nose while feeding. Choice A is incorrect as choking typically involves a more severe airway obstruction. Choice B is incorrect because difficulty swallowing is not the primary concern in choanal atresia. Choice C is incorrect as the issue is not related to hunger cues but rather the physiological challenges associated with breathing while feeding.

5. When describing urticaria, what would an instructor include?

• A. It is a type IV hypersensitivity reaction.
• B. Histamine release leads to vasodilation.
• C. Wheals appear first followed by erythema.
• D. The nonpruritic rash blanches with pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Urticaria is a type I hypersensitivity reaction where histamine release leads to vasodilation and the formation of characteristic wheals. Choice A is incorrect as urticaria is associated with type I hypersensitivity, not type IV. Choice C is incorrect because in urticaria, erythema typically appears before the development of wheals. Choice D is incorrect as urticaria is typically pruritic and does not blanch with pressure.

Similar Questions