Nursing Elites

1. Your client is adversely affected with fever, night sweats, occult hematuria, tenderness of the spleen, and Osler's nodes. What disorder would you most likely suspect?

• A. Tuberculosis
• B. AIDS/HIV
• C. Pericarditis
• D. Endocarditis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The client is likely suffering from endocarditis based on the symptoms described. Endocarditis is characterized by fever, night sweats, hematuria, splenomegaly (tenderness of the spleen), and Osler's nodes (painful nodules on the pads of the fingers or toes). While tuberculosis and AIDS/HIV can present with some similar symptoms, the presence of Osler's nodes is more specific to endocarditis. Pericarditis typically presents with chest pain, not the combination of symptoms seen in this case.

2. Select all of the risk factors that are associated with deep vein thrombosis.

• A. The use of oral contraceptives
• B. Type B and O blood
• C. Rh negative blood
• D. Underweight

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: "The use of oral contraceptives." Risk factors for deep vein thrombosis include factors such as immobility, surgery, cancer, obesity, smoking, and the use of oral contraceptives. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because blood type and Rh factor do not play a role in the development of deep vein thrombosis, and being underweight is not typically considered a risk factor for this condition.

3. You are caring for a neonate who has a cleft palate. You should inform the mother that surgical correction will be done when the infant is:

• A. 8 to 12 months of age.
• B. 20 to 24 months of age.
• C. 16 to 20 months of age.
• D. 12 to 16 months of age.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 8 to 12 months of age. Surgical correction for a cleft palate is typically performed around this age to optimize speech development and prevent feeding difficulties. Options B, C, and D suggest later ages for surgery, which may lead to speech and feeding issues due to the delay in correction.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is performing triage for a group of clients who were in a train crash. Which of the following clients should the nurse tag as emergent?

• A. A client who has an open fracture of the femur
• B. A client who has periorbital ecchymosis
• C. A client who has asymmetrical thorax
• D. A client who has a deep-partial thickness burn on the lower extremities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a triage situation, an asymmetrical thorax suggests a potentially life-threatening condition such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, requiring immediate attention. This client should be tagged as emergent. Periorbital ecchymosis and deep-partial thickness burns, while concerning, may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. An open fracture of the femur, although serious, can be prioritized after addressing emergent cases.

5. A nurse working on a med-surg unit is managing the care of four clients. The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for which of the following clients?

• A. A client who is at risk for pressure ulcers and has an albumin level of 4.2 g/dL
• B. A client with type 1 DM who uses an insulin pump
• C. A client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds
• D. A client with orthostatic hypotension receiving IV fluids

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should schedule an interdisciplinary conference for a client who is receiving heparin and has an aPTT of 34 seconds to ensure comprehensive care coordination. In this case, the need for a conference may be to discuss potential adjustments in heparin therapy, monitor for adverse effects, or ensure proper anticoagulation levels. Choices A, B, and D do not specifically indicate the need for interdisciplinary collaboration related to the client's condition or treatment. Therefore, they are not the priority for scheduling an interdisciplinary conference.

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