Nursing Elites

1. A nurse at a long-term care facility is planning a fall prevention program for the residents. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include?

• A. Apply vest restraints to residents who are confused
• B. Keep all four side rails up on beds at night
• C. Accompany residents over 85 years of age during ambulation
• D. Implement rounds every 2 hours during the day to offer toileting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to implement rounds every 2 hours during the day to offer toileting. This intervention helps prevent falls by addressing the common cause of unassisted mobility, which is the need to use the bathroom. Choice A is incorrect as restraints should not be the first choice for fall prevention due to the risk of injury and loss of independence. Choice B is incorrect because all side rails up can lead to entrapment and should only be used based on individualized assessments. Choice C may not be feasible for all residents over 85 years old and does not directly address the risk of falls.

2. The nurse is planning care for a patient with acute hypernatremia. What should the nurse include in this patient's plan of care? (select one that does not apply)

• A. Reduce IV access
• B. Limit length of visits
• C. Restrict fluids to 1500 mL per day
• D. Conduct frequent neurologic checks

Correct answer: D

Rationale: For a patient with acute hypernatremia, the nurse should include interventions like reducing free water losses, correcting sodium levels slowly, monitoring neurologic status, and ensuring adequate fluid intake. Conducting frequent neurologic checks is essential in assessing the patient's neurological status and detecting any changes promptly. Therefore, this action should not be excluded from the plan of care. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to managing acute hypernatremia and can be safely excluded from the plan of care. Reducing IV access, limiting length of visits, and restricting fluids to 1500 mL per day are not appropriate actions for managing acute hypernatremia.

3. The doctor has ordered 500 mg of a medication PO once a day. The tablets on hand are labeled as 1 tablet = 250 mg. How many tablets will you administer to your patient?

• A. 1 Tablet
• B. 2 Tablets
• C. 3 Tablets
• D. 4 Tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, divide the total dosage prescribed (500 mg) by the dosage per tablet (250 mg per tablet). 500 mg / 250 mg per tablet = 2 tablets. Therefore, the correct answer is 2 tablets. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the correct calculation based on the provided information.

4. Wilms' tumor is a form of:

• A. Renal cancer.
• B. Liver cancer.
• C. Basal cell carcinoma.
• D. Brain cancer.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wilms' tumor is a type of kidney cancer that primarily affects children. The correct answer is A: Renal cancer. This tumor originates in the kidneys and is most commonly found in children, with the peak incidence around 3-4 years of age. Choice B, Liver cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor specifically involves the kidneys, not the liver. Choice C, Basal cell carcinoma, is a form of skin cancer, not related to Wilms' tumor. Choice D, Brain cancer, is incorrect as Wilms' tumor is not associated with the brain but rather with the kidneys.

5. Steven John has type 1 diabetes mellitus and receives insulin. Which laboratory test will the nurse assess?

• A. Potassium
• B. AST (aspartate aminotransferase)
• C. Serum amylase
• D. Sodium

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Potassium. Patients with type 1 diabetes receiving insulin are at risk of developing hypokalemia due to insulin's effects on potassium levels. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because AST, serum amylase, and sodium levels are not directly impacted by insulin therapy in type 1 diabetes and are not the primary concern that needs monitoring in this scenario.

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