Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following nursing interventions should be taken for a client who complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking his glyburide (DiaBeta)?

• A. Administer glyburide again
• B. Administer subcutaneous insulin and monitor blood glucose
• C. Monitor blood glucose closely, and look for signs of hypoglycemia
• D. Monitor blood glucose and assess for signs of hyperglycemia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: After a client complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking glyburide, the priority nursing intervention should be to monitor blood glucose closely and look for signs of hypoglycemia. Vomiting could indicate that the glyburide was not properly absorbed, potentially leading to hypoglycemia. Administering glyburide again (Choice A) could worsen hypoglycemia. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate without assessing the blood glucose first. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not the immediate concern in this situation.

2. Clients with type 1 diabetes may require which of the following changes to their daily routine during periods of infection?

• A. No change
• B. Less insulin
• C. More insulin
• D. Oral antidiabetic agents

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During periods of infection, clients with type 1 diabetes may require more insulin to manage the increased blood glucose levels caused by stress and illness. Insulin needs often rise during infections due to the body's increased resistance to the effects of insulin. Therefore, increasing insulin doses is crucial to maintain blood glucose control. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Option A ('No change') is inaccurate because during infections, insulin requirements typically increase. Option B ('Less insulin') is incorrect as the body's increased insulin resistance during infections usually necessitates higher insulin doses. Option D ('Oral antidiabetic agents') is not suitable for type 1 diabetes management as these medications are primarily used for type 2 diabetes.

3. A nurse working in the emergency department is assessing several clients. Which of the following clients is the highest priority?

• A. A client who reports right-sided flank pain and is diaphoretic
• B. A client who has active bleeding from a puncture wound of the left groin area
• C. A client who has a raised red skin rash on his arms, neck, and face
• D. A client who reports shortness of breath and left neck and shoulder pain

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because shortness of breath with referred pain may indicate a serious condition, such as a cardiac event or pulmonary embolism, making this the highest priority. Option A, flank pain with diaphoresis, could suggest kidney-related issues but is not as immediately life-threatening as compromised breathing. Option B, active bleeding, though serious, can usually be controlled with proper interventions. Option C, a raised red skin rash, may indicate an allergic reaction but is not as urgent as respiratory distress with neck and shoulder pain.

4. Which of the following best describes evidence-based practice?

• A. Using outdated research
• B. Relying on personal experience alone
• C. Integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence
• D. Disregarding patient preferences

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Evidence-based practice involves integrating clinical expertise with the best available evidence to make informed decisions about patient care. Choice A is incorrect as evidence-based practice relies on current and relevant research. Choice B is incorrect as it emphasizes the importance of not relying solely on personal experience. Choice D is incorrect as patient preferences play a significant role in evidence-based practice.

5. While administering penicillin intravenously, you notice that the patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first action you should take?

• A. Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• B. Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• C. Call the doctor.
• D. Stop the intravenous flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate after administering penicillin intravenously is to stop the intravenous flow immediately. This can help prevent further complications by discontinuing the administration of the medication that might be causing the adverse effects. Decreasing or increasing the rate of medication flow may not address the underlying issue of the patient's adverse reaction. While it's important to involve the healthcare provider in such situations, the immediate priority is to halt the administration of the medication.

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