HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. Which of the following nursing interventions should be taken for a client who complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking his glyburide (DiaBeta)?
- A. Administer glyburide again
- B. Administer subcutaneous insulin and monitor blood glucose
- C. Monitor blood glucose closely, and look for signs of hypoglycemia
- D. Monitor blood glucose and assess for signs of hyperglycemia
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a client complains of nausea and vomits one hour after taking glyburide, the priority nursing intervention should be to monitor blood glucose closely and look for signs of hypoglycemia. Vomiting could indicate that the glyburide was not properly absorbed, potentially leading to hypoglycemia. Administering glyburide again (Choice A) could worsen hypoglycemia. Administering subcutaneous insulin (Choice B) is not appropriate without assessing the blood glucose first. Monitoring for signs of hyperglycemia (Choice D) is not the immediate concern in this situation.
2. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.
- A. The fourth cranial nerve: The trochlear nerve
- B. The twelfth cranial nerve: The hypoglossal nerve
- C. The tenth cranial nerve: The olfactory nerve
- D. The thirteenth cranial nerve: The auditory nerve
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve, which controls the muscles of the tongue. The other choices are incorrect because the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, the olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell, and there are only twelve cranial nerves, so there is no thirteenth cranial nerve.
3. A patient's serum potassium level is 2.2 mEq/L. Which nursing action is the highest priority for this patient?
- A. Start oxygen at 2 L/min
- B. Initiate cardiac monitoring
- C. Initiate seizure precautions
- D. Keep the patient on bed rest
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to initiate cardiac monitoring. Severe hypokalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making cardiac monitoring the priority to detect and manage any cardiac complications. Starting oxygen, seizure precautions, or bed rest are not the immediate priority actions for severe hypokalemia.
4. What is the main objective of palliative care?
- A. To cure the disease
- B. To provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life
- C. To extend hospital stays
- D. To focus solely on treatment
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The main objective of palliative care is to provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life. Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients facing serious illnesses by providing relief from symptoms such as pain, stress, and other physical and emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to cure the disease but rather to manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of palliative care is not to extend hospital stays unnecessarily but to improve the patient's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is not solely focused on treatment but takes a holistic approach to care that includes addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.
5. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?
- A. An elderly patient with cataracts and macular degeneration
- B. A male patient with hypothyroidism
- C. A male patient with hyperthyroidism
- D. An adolescent with a closed head injury
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An adolescent with a closed head injury is at the highest risk for papilledema due to increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is often a consequence of elevated intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like head trauma. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with an increased risk of papilledema compared to a closed head injury, which is more likely to lead to elevated intracranial pressure and subsequent papilledema.
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