Nursing Elites

1. Your 54-year-old male HIV-positive patient has just expired. How should you care for this deceased patient?

• A. Bathe the patient, but it is still necessary to use standard precautions because the patient is deceased.
• B. Place the patient in a negative pressure isolated area of the morgue.
• C. Double shroud the patient to prevent the spread of infection.
• D. Bathe the patient using the same standard precautions you used when he was alive.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Even after a patient has expired, standard precautions should be maintained to prevent the spread of infection. Bathing the deceased patient should be done using the same standard precautions followed when the patient was alive. This includes using personal protective equipment and following proper infection control procedures. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because standard precautions must still be adhered to even after the patient has passed away to ensure safety and prevent the transmission of infections.

2. While administering penicillin intravenously, you notice that the patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate. What is the first action you should take?

• A. Decrease the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• B. Increase the rate of the intravenous medication flow.
• C. Call the doctor.
• D. Stop the intravenous flow.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action to take when a patient becomes hypotensive with a bounding, rapid pulse rate after administering penicillin intravenously is to stop the intravenous flow immediately. This can help prevent further complications by discontinuing the administration of the medication that might be causing the adverse effects. Decreasing or increasing the rate of medication flow may not address the underlying issue of the patient's adverse reaction. While it's important to involve the healthcare provider in such situations, the immediate priority is to halt the administration of the medication.

3. Your long-term care patient has chronic pain and at this point in time, the patient needs increasing dosages to adequately control this pain. What is this patient most likely affected by?

• A. Drug addiction
• B. Drug interactions
• C. Drug side effects
• D. Drug tolerance

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Drug tolerance. When a patient needs increasing dosages to achieve the same pain relief, it indicates the development of drug tolerance. This means the body has adapted to the drug, requiring higher doses to produce the same effect. Choice A, drug addiction, is incorrect because drug addiction involves a psychological and physical dependence on the drug, which is not described in the scenario. Choice B, drug interactions, is incorrect as it refers to the effects when multiple drugs interact with each other, not the situation described. Choice C, drug side effects, is also incorrect as it pertains to the unintended effects of a drug, not the need for higher doses to control pain.

4. You are performing a neurological assessment of your adolescent patient. The patient has the Moro reflex. How should you interpret this neurological assessment finding?

• A. It is normal among adolescents.
• B. It indicates that the patient has an intact peripheral nervous system.
• C. It indicates that the patient has an intact central nervous system.
• D. It is not a normal finding.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The Moro reflex, also known as the startle reflex, is typically present in infants up to around 4-6 months of age and is characterized by the infant's response to a sudden loss of support or loud noise. It is not a normal finding in adolescents or older individuals. Therefore, if an adolescent patient exhibits the Moro reflex during a neurological assessment, it is considered abnormal and warrants further evaluation. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Moro reflex is not expected or normal among adolescents and does not specifically indicate the status of either the peripheral or central nervous system in this age group.

5. A charge nurse on an obstetrical unit is preparing the shift assignment. Which of the following clients should be assigned to an RN who has floated from a medical-surgical unit?

• A. A client who is at 32 weeks of gestation and has premature rupture of membranes
• B. A multigravida client who has preeclampsia and is receiving misoprostol for induction of labor
• C. A primigravida client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump
• D. A client who has gestational diabetes and is receiving biweekly nonstress tests

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A nurse who floated from a medical-surgical unit would be appropriate to care for a client who is 1 day postoperative following a Cesarean section and has a PCA pump. This client requires monitoring of the postoperative incision site, pain management through the PCA pump, and assessment for any signs of complications related to the surgery. Assigning this client to an RN with experience in postoperative care aligns with providing specialized and appropriate care. Choices A, B, and D involve conditions or procedures specific to obstetrics that would be better managed by a nurse with obstetrical experience, making them incorrect choices for the floated RN.

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