HESI LPN
Community Health HESI Study Guide
1. You organize community groups to participate in community activities. You can BEST motivate participation in the community health development program by:
- A. Conducting group work
- B. Instructing the people to agree with your plans
- C. Allowing the people to exercise decision-making
- D. Assigning people participative roles
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Allowing people to exercise decision-making is the best way to motivate participation in community activities. By involving the community in decision-making processes, you empower them and make them feel valued, which can lead to increased engagement and commitment. Choices A, B, and D do not foster a sense of ownership and empowerment among the community members, which are crucial for sustainable participation in community programs.
2. A newborn presents with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position. Which nursing diagnosis should guide the plan of care?
- A. Pain related to periosteal injury
- B. Impaired mobility related to bleeding
- C. Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit
- D. Injury related to intracranial hemorrhage
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis to guide the plan of care for a newborn with a pronounced cephalic hematoma following a birth in the posterior position is 'Parental anxiety related to knowledge deficit.' This is appropriate because the parents may be worried about the appearance and potential complications of the cephalic hematoma. They may require education and reassurance from the nurse. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not address the emotional needs of the parents and the knowledge deficit they may have regarding the condition.
3. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?
- A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
- B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
- C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
- D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.
4. A client with asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Tachycardia
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Tachycardia. Albuterol can cause tachycardia as a side effect due to its stimulant effect on the heart. It acts as a beta-2 adrenergic agonist, leading to increased heart rate. Hypoglycemia (choice A) is not a common side effect of albuterol. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is also not typically associated with albuterol use. Hypotension (choice D) is less likely to occur as albuterol usually causes tachycardia rather than hypotension.
5. A client with diabetes mellitus is receiving insulin glargine (Lantus). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Hyperkalemia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypercalcemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Insulin glargine is a long-acting insulin used to control blood sugar levels in diabetes. The nurse should monitor the client for hypoglycemia, which is a potential side effect of insulin therapy. Hypoglycemia occurs when blood sugar levels drop too low, leading to symptoms such as shakiness, dizziness, sweating, confusion, and in severe cases, loss of consciousness. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is an elevated potassium level, not typically associated with insulin glargine. Hypertension (choice C) is high blood pressure, which is not a common side effect of insulin glargine. Hypercalcemia (choice D) is an elevated calcium level and is not related to the use of insulin glargine.
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