Nursing Elites

1. You organize community groups to participate in community activities. You can BEST motivate participation in the community health development program by:

• A. Conducting group work
• B. Instructing the people to agree with your plans
• C. Allowing the people to exercise decision-making
• D. Assigning people participative roles

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Allowing people to exercise decision-making is the best way to motivate participation in community activities. By involving the community in decision-making processes, you empower them and make them feel valued, which can lead to increased engagement and commitment. Choices A, B, and D do not foster a sense of ownership and empowerment among the community members, which are crucial for sustainable participation in community programs.

2. The nurse at a health fair has taken a client's blood pressure twice, 10 minutes apart, in the same arm while the client is seated. The nurse records the two blood pressures of 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg. What is the appropriate nursing action in response to these readings?

• A. Refer the client to a nutritionist after providing health teaching about a low-sodium diet.
• B. Place the client in a recumbent position and call the paramedics for transport to the hospital.
• C. Talk with the client to assess whether there is stress in the client's life and refer to a counseling service.
• D. Take the client's blood pressure in the other arm and then schedule a healthcare practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The appropriate nursing action in response to significantly high blood pressure readings like 172/104 mm Hg and 164/98 mm Hg is to confirm the readings by taking the blood pressure in the other arm. This can help rule out any error or issue specific to that arm. The nurse should then schedule a healthcare practitioner's appointment for as soon as possible to further assess the client's condition and determine the appropriate intervention. Choice A is incorrect because solely referring the client to a nutritionist for a low-sodium diet without further assessment or confirmation of the blood pressure readings is premature. Choice B is incorrect as the client is already seated, and calling paramedics for immediate transport to the hospital is not warranted based solely on the blood pressure readings provided. Choice C is incorrect as stress may not be the sole reason for the high blood pressure readings, and further assessment is required before referring the client to counseling services.

3. In the preparation of your health education plan, what is the first thing to do?

• A. Assess community needs for health education
• B. Identify the subjects for health teaching
• C. Specify your goals and objectives
• D. Identify who will provide support and the type of support to be provided

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assess community needs for health education. This is the initial step in developing a health education plan as it helps in understanding the specific requirements of the community. Identifying subjects for teaching (choice B) comes after assessing needs. Specifying goals and objectives (choice C) is crucial but typically follows the assessment of community needs. Identifying support providers and types (choice D) is important but is not the first step in preparing a health education plan.

4. Which of the following is a major focus of tertiary prevention?

• A. Preventing the onset of disease
• B. Early detection and treatment
• C. Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness
• D. Health education

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.' Tertiary prevention aims to minimize the effects of a disease or condition that is already established. Choices A, 'Preventing the onset of disease,' and B, 'Early detection and treatment,' are aspects of primary and secondary prevention, respectively. Choice D, 'Health education,' is more related to promoting awareness and knowledge rather than specifically focusing on reducing the impact of an ongoing illness.

5. Which finding would be the most characteristic of an acute episode of reactive airway disease?

• A. Auditory gurgling
• B. Inspiratory laryngeal stridor
• C. Auditory expiratory wheezing
• D. Frequent dry coughing

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Auditory expiratory wheezing. Expiratory wheezing is a common sign of reactive airway disease, such as asthma, where airways are constricted, making it difficult to expel air from the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not typically associated with reactive airway disease. Auditory gurgling may suggest airway secretions or fluid accumulation, inspiratory laryngeal stridor indicates upper airway obstruction, and frequent dry coughing is more commonly seen in conditions like upper respiratory infections or postnasal drip.

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