HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?
- A. Reduces brain metabolism and systemic blood pressure
- B. Reduces cerebral edema
- C. Dehydrates the brain
- D. Draws fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.
2. What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?
- A. Oxygen transport
- B. Immunity
- C. Blood clotting
- D. Carbon dioxide transport
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Oxygen transport. Hemoglobin in red blood cells binds to oxygen in the lungs and carries it to tissues throughout the body, releasing it where needed. This process is essential for cellular respiration and energy production. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because hemoglobin's primary function is not related to immunity, blood clotting, or carbon dioxide transport. Hemoglobin's main role is to transport oxygen, ensuring adequate oxygen supply to body tissues for metabolic processes.
3. A nurse is assisting in the admission of a young adult female Korean exchange student with acute abdominal pain. When asked about her sexual activity, she looks away. What should the nurse do?
- A. Omit this question from the assessment form
- B. Ask her if she would like an interpreter present to assist with communication
- C. Reword the question to ensure the client's understanding
- D. Watch the client's response when asked a different question
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Observing the client's response to a different question can help gauge her comfort level and understanding, which is essential in culturally sensitive care. By watching her response to a different question, the nurse can assess if the discomfort is related to the specific question or a broader issue. Omitting the question may result in missing crucial information. Asking about an interpreter assumes that the language barrier is the only issue, which may not be the case. Rewording the question may not address the underlying discomfort and could still lead to misinterpretation.
4. Prior to giving digoxin, the PN assesses that a 2-month-old infant's heart rate is 120 beats/minute. Based on this finding, what action should the PN take?
- A. Withhold the medication and notify the charge nurse
- B. Give the medication and document the heart rate
- C. Withhold the medication until the next scheduled dose
- D. Request the charge nurse to administer the medication
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A heart rate of 120 beats per minute is within the normal range for a 2-month-old infant. Therefore, it is safe to administer the digoxin and document the heart rate as part of routine care. Choice A is incorrect as withholding the medication is not necessary since the heart rate is normal. Choice C is incorrect as there is no need to delay the administration until the next scheduled dose when the heart rate is within the normal range. Choice D is incorrect as the primary nurse is not needed to administer the medication since the heart rate is normal and falls within the safe range for administration.
5. The nurse is providing care for a client with type 1 diabetes mellitus who is receiving NPH insulin. The nurse notices that the client's evening glucose levels are consistently above 260 mg/dl. What does this indicate?
- A. States that her feet are constantly cold and feel numb
- B. A wound on the ankle that starts to drain and becomes painful
- C. Consecutive evening serum glucose greater than 260 mg/dl
- D. Reports nausea in the morning but still able to eat breakfast
Correct answer: C
Rationale: High evening glucose levels suggest that the current insulin dosage may be inadequate to control the client's blood sugar levels effectively. This indicates poor glycemic control and the need for a possible adjustment in the insulin regimen. Option A describes symptoms of peripheral neuropathy, which are not directly related to the elevated glucose levels but may be a long-term complication of diabetes. Option B describes a wound infection, which is not directly related to the client's high glucose levels. Option D mentions morning nausea, which could be due to various causes and is not directly related to the high evening glucose levels.
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