HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?
- A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
- B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
- C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
- D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.
2. You are teaching students about how hyperosmotic agents (osmotic diuretics) are used to treat intracranial pressure. Which of the following is NOT one of the functions of hyperosmotic agents?
- A. Reduces brain metabolism and systemic blood pressure
- B. Reduces cerebral edema
- C. Dehydrates the brain
- D. Draws fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperosmotic agents primarily work by reducing cerebral edema, dehydrating the brain, and drawing fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma. However, they do not have a direct effect on reducing brain metabolism or systemic blood pressure. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Choice B is correct as hyperosmotic agents do help in reducing cerebral edema. Choice C is accurate as hyperosmotic agents dehydrate the brain. Choice D is also true as these agents draw fluids from extravascular spaces into the plasma.
3. The PN determines that a client with cirrhosis is experiencing peripheral neuropathy. What action should the PN take?
- A. Protect the client's feet from injury
- B. Apply a heating pad to the affected area
- C. Keep the client's feet elevated
- D. Assess the feet and legs for jaundice
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Protecting the client's feet from injury is the most appropriate action for a client with cirrhosis experiencing peripheral neuropathy. Peripheral neuropathy can lead to a loss of sensation, making the client prone to unnoticed injuries. Applying a heating pad (Choice B) is contraindicated as it may cause burns or further damage to the affected area. Keeping the client's feet elevated (Choice C) is not directly related to managing peripheral neuropathy and may not provide significant benefit. Assessing the feet and legs for jaundice (Choice D) is important for monitoring liver function in clients with cirrhosis, but in this case, the priority is to prevent injury to the feet due to decreased sensation.
4. When caring for a child with sickle cell disease, the PN expects that the child will most likely describe which symptom when experiencing a sickle cell crisis?
- A. Decreased hemoglobin
- B. Joint pain
- C. Fatigue
- D. Infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a sickle cell crisis, a child with sickle cell disease is most likely to describe joint pain. Sickle cell disease leads to the blockage of blood flow by sickled red blood cells, causing ischemia and pain, often felt in the joints and other body parts. Fatigue (choice C) is a nonspecific symptom that can occur in various conditions but is not a characteristic symptom of a sickle cell crisis. While decreased hemoglobin (choice A) can be observed in sickle cell disease, it is not a symptom typically described by a child during a sickle cell crisis. Infection (choice D) can trigger a sickle cell crisis but is not the symptom most likely to be described by the child during the crisis.
5. Patients are coming into the emergency room as a result of an apartment house fire. You are examining a patient who is in distress but has no visible burn marks. You suspect that she is suffering from inhalation burns. Which of the following signs would NOT be associated with inhalation burns?
- A. Singed nasal hairs
- B. Conjunctivitis
- C. Hoarseness
- D. Clear sputum
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clear sputum would not be associated with inhalation burns. Inhalation burns typically present with symptoms like singed nasal hairs, conjunctivitis, hoarseness, and possibly soot in sputum due to smoke inhalation. Clear sputum suggests that there is no significant inflammation or injury to the respiratory tract, which is not consistent with the typical findings in inhalation burns. The other choices are associated with inhalation burns: singed nasal hairs can occur due to exposure to hot air or gases, conjunctivitis can result from irritating substances in smoke, and hoarseness can be due to airway irritation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access