Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?

• A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
• B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
• C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
• D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.

2. The client diagnosed with HIV is taught by the nurse that the condition is transmitted through

• A. the infection passed from a mother to her baby
• B. Tears
• C. human bites
• D. insect bites

Correct answer: A

Rationale: HIV can be transmitted from a mother to her baby during childbirth or breastfeeding, making choice A the correct answer. Tears, human bites, and insect bites are not common modes of HIV transmission. While human bites can potentially transmit the virus, it is less common compared to mother-to-child transmission.

3. During a routine prenatal visit at the antepartal clinic, a multipara at 35-weeks gestation presents with 2+ edema of the ankles and feet. Which additional information should the PN report to the RN?

• A. Due date
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Gravida and parity
• D. Fundal height

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Blood pressure is the most critical information to report to the RN in this scenario. The presence of edema, along with high blood pressure, can be indicative of preeclampsia, a severe condition in pregnancy. Monitoring blood pressure is essential for assessing the patient's condition and taking appropriate actions if necessary. Choices A, C, and D are not as urgent in this situation. The due date, gravida, and parity are important for overall assessment but do not address the immediate concern of potential preeclampsia. Fundal height is used to assess fetal growth and position but is not the priority when edema and high blood pressure are present.

4. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

5. Which condition is most commonly associated with a "bull's eye" rash?

• A. Lyme disease
• B. Rocky Mountain spotted fever
• C. Syphilis
• D. Toxoplasmosis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Lyme disease. The "bull's eye" rash, or erythema migrans, is a hallmark of early Lyme disease, caused by the bacterium Borrelia burgdorferi. Choice B, Rocky Mountain spotted fever, presents with a different type of rash. Choice C, Syphilis, typically presents with a painless ulcer and rash but not a "bull's eye" rash. Choice D, Toxoplasmosis, does not typically present with a "bull's eye" rash.

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