HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?
- A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
- B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
- C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
- D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.
2. All of the following are posture and body alignment problems EXCEPT:
- A. Kyphosis
- B. Scoliosis
- C. Thrombosis
- D. Lumbar lordosis
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Thrombosis is a condition involving blood clots and is not related to posture or body alignment, unlike kyphosis, scoliosis, and lumbar lordosis, which are spinal alignment issues. Kyphosis refers to excessive outward curvature of the spine, scoliosis is characterized by a sideways curvature of the spine, and lumbar lordosis involves an exaggerated inward curve in the lower back. Thrombosis, on the other hand, is a condition where blood clots form in the blood vessels, not a posture or body alignment problem.
3. When assisting an older male client recovering from a stroke to ambulate with a cane, where should the nurse place the cane in relation to the client's body?
- A. In front of the body to lean on while stepping forward
- B. On the opposite side of the affected extremity
- C. Approximately one foot away from the body to stabilize balance
- D. On the same side as the affected extremity
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'On the opposite side of the affected extremity.' Placing the cane on the opposite side of the affected extremity provides maximum support and stability during ambulation for a client recovering from a stroke. This positioning helps to offload weight from the affected side and improves balance. Choice A is incorrect because placing the cane in front of the body can lead to incorrect weight distribution and instability. Choice C is incorrect as placing the cane one foot away from the body may not provide adequate support and can compromise balance. Choice D is incorrect as placing the cane on the same side as the affected extremity does not offer the necessary balance and support needed for safe ambulation.
4. A nurse is completing a focused assessment of an older adult's skin. The nurse notes a crusted 0.7 cm lesion on the client's forehead. Which action should the nurse take in response to this finding?
- A. Report the finding to the healthcare provider
- B. Place a clear occlusive dressing over the site
- C. Apply a warm compress to remove the crusted area
- D. Explain that this is a normal skin change with aging
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A crusted lesion, especially in an older adult, could be indicative of skin cancer or another serious condition. Therefore, reporting this finding to the healthcare provider is crucial for further evaluation and appropriate management. Placing an occlusive dressing (Choice B) could prevent proper assessment and treatment. Applying a warm compress (Choice C) may not be suitable for a suspicious skin lesion as it could worsen the condition. Explaining it as a normal skin change (Choice D) without proper evaluation can delay necessary interventions and potentially harm the patient.
5. Which electrolyte imbalance is most likely to cause cardiac arrhythmias?
- A. Hyperkalemia
- B. Hypocalcemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Hyperkalemia is the correct answer as it can lead to dangerous cardiac arrhythmias due to its effects on the electrical conduction of the heart. High levels of potassium can disrupt the normal electrical activity of the heart, potentially leading to life-threatening arrhythmias. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is not the most likely cause of cardiac arrhythmias compared to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (choice C), referring to high sodium levels, is not directly associated with causing cardiac arrhythmias. While hypokalemia (choice D), low potassium levels, can also lead to cardiac arrhythmias, hyperkalemia is the more likely culprit in causing severe disturbances in heart rhythm.
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