HESI LPN
HESI PN Exit Exam 2024
1. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?
- A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
- B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
- C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
- D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.
2. A client is admitted to the postoperative surgical unit with two test tubes after a left lobectomy. The nurse observed that the chambers are set at the prescribed suction of 20 cm water pressure, and tidying occurs with respirations and bubbling. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Clamp the chest tube to see if the bubbling activity stops
- B. Notify the registered nurse of the observed bubbling
- C. Maintain system integrity to promote lung reexpansion
- D. Apply an occlusive dressing to the chest
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Maintaining system integrity is essential to promote lung reexpansion in postoperative patients with chest tubes. Clamping the chest tube abruptly can lead to tension pneumothorax, a life-threatening condition. The bubbling observed is a normal sign indicating that the system is functioning correctly, as it allows the drainage of air or fluid from the pleural space. Notifying the registered nurse may be necessary if there are significant concerns or changes observed, but the immediate action should be to ensure system integrity and lung reexpansion.
3. Which disorder is characterized by demyelination of neurons in the central nervous system?
- A. Multiple sclerosis
- B. Parkinson's disease
- C. Alzheimer's disease
- D. Huntington's disease
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Multiple sclerosis is the correct answer. It is an autoimmune disease that specifically targets and damages the myelin sheath surrounding neurons in the central nervous system. This demyelination disrupts the transmission of nerve signals and leads to a variety of neurological symptoms. Parkinson's disease (Choice B), Alzheimer's disease (Choice C), and Huntington's disease (Choice D) are neurodegenerative disorders that do not primarily involve demyelination of neurons in the CNS. Parkinson's disease is characterized by the loss of dopamine-producing neurons, Alzheimer's disease by the formation of plaques and tangles in the brain, and Huntington's disease by a genetic mutation affecting nerve cells.
4. When a woman in early pregnancy is leaving the clinic, she blushes and asks the nurse if it is true that sex during pregnancy is bad for the baby. What is the best response for the nurse to give?
- A. The baby is protected by the sac. Sex is perfectly alright.
- B. It is unlikely to harm the baby. What you do with your personal life is your concern.
- C. Intercourse during pregnancy is usually alright, but you need to ask the doctor if it is acceptable for you.
- D. In a normal pregnancy, intercourse will not harm the baby. However, many women experience a change in desire. How are you feeling?
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Choice D is the best response as it reassures the patient that intercourse in a normal pregnancy will not harm the baby. It also shows empathy by acknowledging that many women experience changes in sexual desire during pregnancy. This response validates the patient's concerns and opens up a dialogue about her feelings. Choice A is incorrect as it lacks information about changes in sexual desire and oversimplifies the situation. Choice B is dismissive of the patient's concerns and does not provide adequate information. Choice C is not the best response as it suggests asking the doctor without offering immediate reassurance or addressing the patient's worries.
5. After administering pantoprazole to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD), which statement by the client indicates to the nurse that the medication is producing the desired effect?
- A. After eating my meal, I did not experience any heartburn
- B. I have a great appetite and am feeling really hungry
- C. I should increase the amount of vitamin C in my diet
- D. While eating, I had no difficulty swallowing any of the foods
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Pantoprazole reduces stomach acid production, thus preventing the occurrence of heartburn after meals, which is a common symptom of GERD. Choice B is incorrect because an increased appetite and hunger are not indicators of the desired effect of pantoprazole. Choice C is unrelated to the medication's effect on GERD symptoms. Choice D is also incorrect because the absence of difficulty swallowing is not a specific indicator of pantoprazole's effectiveness in treating GERD.
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