Nursing Elites

1. While caring for a client with a new tracheostomy, the nurse notices that the client is attempting to speak but is unable to. What should the nurse explain to the client regarding their inability to speak?

• A. Speaking is not possible because the tracheostomy tube blocks the vocal cords.
• B. The tracheostomy tube prevents air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult.
• C. The client will regain the ability to speak once the tracheostomy tube is removed.
• D. The tracheostomy tube must be replaced with a speaking valve for the client to speak.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. The tracheostomy tube bypasses the vocal cords, preventing air from reaching them, which is necessary for speech. This makes speaking difficult but not impossible. Removing the tracheostomy tube does not automatically restore the ability to speak (choice C). While a speaking valve can be added later to allow speech, initially, the tracheostomy tube itself hinders air from reaching the vocal cords, making speech difficult (choice D is incorrect). Choice A is incorrect as the tracheostomy tube does not block the vocal cords directly; instead, it prevents air from reaching them.

2. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

3. What is the primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells?

• A. To transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues
• B. To protect the body from infections
• C. To help in blood clotting
• D. To regulate body temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The primary function of hemoglobin in red blood cells is to transport oxygen from the lungs to body tissues and return carbon dioxide from the tissues to the lungs. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in the lungs and releases it in the body's tissues. Choice B is incorrect because hemoglobin is not involved in protecting the body from infections. Choice C is incorrect because blood clotting is mainly facilitated by platelets and clotting factors, not hemoglobin. Choice D is incorrect because the regulation of body temperature is mainly controlled by processes like sweating and shivering, not by hemoglobin.

4. A client with blood type AB negative delivers a newborn with blood type A positive. The cord blood reveals a positive indirect Coombs test. Which is the implication of this finding?

• A. The newborn is infected with an infectious blood-borne disease
• B. The newborn needs phototherapy for physiologic jaundice
• C. The mother's Rh antibodies are present in the neonatal blood
• D. The mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A positive indirect Coombs test indicates that the mother's Rh antibodies have crossed the placenta and are present in the neonatal blood, which can lead to hemolytic disease of the newborn. This finding necessitates close monitoring and potential intervention. Choice A is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate an infectious blood-borne disease. Choice B is incorrect as phototherapy for physiologic jaundice is not related to a positive Coombs test result. Choice D is incorrect because a positive Coombs test does not indicate that the mother no longer needs Rho immune globulin injections; in fact, it suggests a need for further management to prevent hemolytic disease of the newborn.

5. A client post-lobectomy is placed on mechanical ventilation. The nurse notices the client is fighting the ventilator. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Increase the sedation as prescribed.
• B. Manually ventilate the client using an ambu bag.
• C. Check the ventilator settings and alarms.
• D. Suction the client’s airway.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client is fighting the ventilator is to check the ventilator settings and alarms. This step is crucial to ensure that the ventilator is functioning correctly and providing the necessary support to the client. Increasing sedation (Choice A) should only be considered after confirming that the ventilator settings are appropriate. While manually ventilating the client (Choice B) may be required in some cases, it is not the initial action to take. Suctioning the client's airway (Choice D) is not the priority in this situation, where the primary concern is addressing the client's struggle with the ventilator.

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