Nursing Elites

1. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?

• A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
• B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
• C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
• D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

2. An infant has been diagnosed with cradle cap. What is the correct intervention to treat the scalp?

• A. Alcohol
• B. Mineral oil
• C. Calamine
• D. A&D ointment

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cradle cap is a common condition in infants characterized by crusty patches on the scalp. The correct intervention to treat cradle cap is to apply mineral oil. Mineral oil helps soften the crusty patches, making it easier to remove them gently. Alcohol (Choice A) can be too harsh for an infant's sensitive skin and may cause irritation. Calamine (Choice C) is used to relieve itching associated with conditions like chickenpox or insect bites, not for treating cradle cap. A&D ointment (Choice D) is typically used for diaper rash and minor skin irritations, not for cradle cap.

3. The nurse reports that a client is at risk for a brain attack (stroke) based on which assessment finding?

• A. Nuchal rigidity
• B. Carotid bruit
• C. Jugular vein distention
• D. Palpable cervical lymph node

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Carotid bruit. A carotid bruit is a significant risk factor for stroke as it indicates turbulent blood flow due to narrowing of the carotid artery. Nuchal rigidity is associated with meningitis, jugular vein distention can be a sign of heart failure, and palpable cervical lymph nodes may indicate infection, but they are not directly linked to stroke risk.

4. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
• B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
• C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
• D. The child may not have had it for a long time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.

5. Which dietary modification is most appropriate for a client with nephrotic syndrome?

• A. High protein, low sodium
• B. Low protein, high sodium
• C. High protein, high potassium
• D. Low protein, low sodium

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most appropriate dietary modification for a client with nephrotic syndrome is a low protein, low sodium diet. This diet helps reduce the workload on the kidneys and manage edema, which are common issues in nephrotic syndrome. Choice A, high protein, low sodium, is not recommended because excessive protein intake can further strain the kidneys. Choice B, low protein, high sodium, is inappropriate as high sodium can worsen fluid retention and hypertension. Choice C, high protein, high potassium, is not ideal as high potassium levels can be problematic for individuals with kidney issues.

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