Nursing Elites

1. Which statement about glaucoma is true and accurate?

• A. Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.
• B. Acute angle-closure glaucoma leads to the loss of peripheral vision and tunnel vision.
• C. Primary open-angle glaucoma leads to eye pain, nausea, and vomiting, blurry vision, and halos.
• D. Bubbles are implanted to protect the retina from glaucoma.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Acute angle-closure glaucoma is an ocular emergency.' Acute angle-closure glaucoma is indeed considered an ocular emergency that requires immediate attention to prevent vision loss. Choice B is incorrect because acute angle-closure glaucoma commonly presents with symptoms like severe eye pain, headache, blurred vision, and halos around lights. Choice C is incorrect as these symptoms are more indicative of acute angle-closure glaucoma rather than primary open-angle glaucoma. Choice D is incorrect since bubbles are not typically used to protect the retina from glaucoma; treatment usually involves medications, laser therapy, or surgery to manage intraocular pressure.

2. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?

• A. An elderly patient with cataracts and macular degeneration
• B. A male patient with hypothyroidism
• C. A male patient with hyperthyroidism
• D. An adolescent with a closed head injury

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adolescent with a closed head injury is at the highest risk for papilledema due to increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is often a consequence of elevated intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like head trauma. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with an increased risk of papilledema compared to a closed head injury, which is more likely to lead to elevated intracranial pressure and subsequent papilledema.

3. During which stage of anesthesia is a patient most likely to experience involuntary motor activity?

• A. Stage I
• B. Stage II
• C. Stage III
• D. Stage VI

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Stage II. During Stage II of anesthesia, a patient is most likely to experience involuntary motor activity. This stage is known as the excitement stage, where the patient may exhibit purposeful or involuntary movements. Choice A (Stage I) is incorrect because Stage I is the induction phase where the patient is transitioning from consciousness to unconsciousness, and involuntary motor activity is less likely to occur. Choice C (Stage III) is incorrect as it is the stage of surgical anesthesia characterized by muscle relaxation, and involuntary motor activity is less common during this stage. Choice D (Stage VI) is incorrect as there is no Stage VI in the standard stages of anesthesia. Therefore, the most appropriate stage where involuntary motor activity is likely to occur is Stage II.

4. A nurse in the emergency department is performing triage for a group of clients who were in a train crash. Which of the following clients should the nurse tag as emergent?

• A. A client who has an open fracture of the femur
• B. A client who has periorbital ecchymosis
• C. A client who has asymmetrical thorax
• D. A client who has a deep-partial thickness burn on the lower extremities

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a triage situation, an asymmetrical thorax suggests a potentially life-threatening condition such as a pneumothorax or hemothorax, requiring immediate attention. This client should be tagged as emergent. Periorbital ecchymosis and deep-partial thickness burns, while concerning, may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. An open fracture of the femur, although serious, can be prioritized after addressing emergent cases.

5. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?

• A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
• B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
• C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block
• D. Complete heart block

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.

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