Nursing Elites

1. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

• A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
• B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
• C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
• D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

2. The healthcare provider would expect which eating disorder to have the greatest fluctuations in potassium?

• A. Binge eating disorder
• B. Anorexia nervosa
• C. Bulimia
• D. Purge syndrome

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bulimia. Bulimia involves cycles of binge eating and purging, where individuals may induce vomiting or use laxatives and diuretics. These purging behaviors can lead to significant fluctuations in potassium levels due to electrolyte imbalances caused by excessive loss of potassium through vomiting and purging. In contrast, Binge eating disorder (A) does not involve purging behaviors, so it is less likely to cause significant potassium fluctuations. Anorexia nervosa (B) is characterized by severe food restriction rather than purging, leading to a different pattern of electrolyte imbalances. Purge syndrome (D) is not a recognized eating disorder and is not associated with specific patterns of potassium fluctuations seen in bulimia.

3. When designing a home health care program for disabled children, which factor should be considered when assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies?

• A. greater access to any healthcare provider
• B. allowance for early discharge
• C. concern for the quality of care
• D. approval by the network healthcare provider

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When assessing reimbursement for services from private insurance companies, approval by the network healthcare provider is crucial. This approval ensures that the services provided are within the approved network, allowing for reimbursement. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to the reimbursement process by private insurance companies. While greater access to any healthcare provider, allowance for early discharge, and concern for the quality of care are important considerations when designing a home health care program, they do not specifically impact the reimbursement process from private insurance companies.

4. In evaluating your client's level of wellness, which of the following indicators can you see?

• A. Appropriate nutritional level
• B. Sense of personal security
• C. Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations
• D. Maladaptations to one's environment

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When evaluating a client's level of wellness, indicators such as appropriate nutritional level, sense of personal security, and acceptance of oneself and one's limitations are crucial. Option C, 'Acceptance of oneself and one's limitations,' directly relates to mental wellness and self-awareness, making it a key indicator of overall well-being. Options A, B, and D are not as directly tied to the psychological and emotional aspects of wellness, making them less relevant indicators in this context. Therefore, the correct answer is C.

5. A nurse working in a community health setting is performing primary health screenings. Which individual is at highest risk for contracting an HIV infection?

• A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners.
• B. A 45-year-old lesbian who has been sexually active with two partners in the past year.
• C. A 30-year-old cocaine user who inhales the drug and works in a topless bar.
• D. A 34-year-old male homosexual who is in a monogamous relationship.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 17-year-old who is sexually active with numerous partners is at the highest risk for contracting an HIV infection due to engaging in risky sexual behavior with multiple partners, increasing the likelihood of exposure to the virus. Choice B is less risky as the individual has had a relatively lower number of sexual partners in the past year. Choice C, although involving drug use, does not directly correlate with a higher risk of contracting HIV unless needles are shared. Choice D, a 34-year-old male homosexual in a monogamous relationship, has a lower risk compared to choice A as long as the relationship remains monogamous.

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