Nursing Elites

1. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

• A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
• B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
• C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
• D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

2. A 67-year-old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw. His admitting diagnosis is Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI). The priority nursing diagnosis for this client during the immediate 24 hours is

• A. Constipation related to immobility
• B. High risk for infection
• C. Impaired gas exchange
• D. Fluid volume deficit

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired gas exchange. In a client with an acute myocardial infarction, impaired gas exchange is a priority nursing diagnosis due to compromised heart function, which affects oxygenated blood circulation. Close monitoring and interventions are crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A) Constipation related to immobility is not the priority in this acute situation; B) High risk for infection is not the immediate concern related to the client's primary diagnosis; D) Fluid volume deficit, while important, is not the priority compared to addressing impaired gas exchange in acute MI.

3. When planning the care for a young adult client diagnosed with anorexia nervosa, which of these concerns should the nurse determine to be the priority for long term mobility?

• A. Digestive problems
• B. Amenorrhea
• C. Electrolyte imbalance
• D. Blood disorders

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Amenorrhea. Amenorrhea, or the absence of menstruation, is a common long-term consequence of anorexia nervosa due to low body weight and hormonal imbalances. Addressing amenorrhea is crucial for the patient's overall health and reproductive potential. Choice A, Digestive problems, may also be a concern in anorexia nervosa, but in terms of long-term mobility, amenorrhea takes priority because of its impact on hormonal balance and bone health. Choice C, Electrolyte imbalance, is important to address in anorexia nervosa due to potential cardiac complications, but it is not directly linked to long-term mobility concerns. Choice D, Blood disorders, while they can occur in anorexia nervosa, are not as directly related to long-term mobility as amenorrhea, which can significantly affect bone health and mobility in the future.

4. A 19-year-old client is paralyzed in a car accident. Which statement used by the client would indicate to the nurse that the client was using the mechanism of 'suppression'?

• A. "I don't remember anything about what happened to me."
• B. "I'd rather not talk about it right now."
• C. "It's all the other guy's fault! He was going too fast."
• D. "My mother is heartbroken about this."

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the statement "I'd rather not talk about it right now" indicates that the client is consciously choosing to avoid discussing the distressing issue, which aligns with the mechanism of suppression. Choice A does not involve active avoidance but rather memory loss, which is not suppression. Choice C involves blaming others, which is a defense mechanism known as projection. Choice D involves expressing emotions rather than avoiding them, which does not align with suppression.

5. What title should be given to this role in the occupational health nurse job description? A registered nurse who teaches and prepares nursing students to function as expert clinicians/practitioners, administrators, educators, researchers, or consultants at the work site.

• A. researcher
• B. case manager
• C. health educator
• D. health promotion specialist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct title for the role described in the job description is a health educator. A health educator is responsible for teaching and preparing nursing students for various professional roles. Choice A, researcher, is incorrect because the main focus in the job description is on teaching and preparing students, not conducting research. Choice B, case manager, does not align with the role of teaching and preparing nursing students. Choice D, health promotion specialist, is also not the best fit as the primary focus in the job description is on education and preparation, rather than promoting health within a specific population.

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