Nursing Elites

1. Which of these clients would the triage nurse request the healthcare provider to examine immediately?

• A. A 5-month-old infant with audible wheezing and grunting
• B. An adolescent with soot on the face and shirt
• C. A middle-aged man with second-degree burns on the right hand
• D. A toddler with singed ends of long hair extending to the waist

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Audible wheezing and grunting in an infant indicate respiratory distress, which is a critical condition requiring immediate assessment and intervention by the healthcare provider. Choices B, C, and D do not present with immediate life-threatening conditions that require urgent evaluation. Soot on the face and shirt, second-degree burns on the hand, and singed hair, while concerning, do not pose an immediate threat to life compared to respiratory distress in an infant.

2. What is a priority goal of involuntary hospitalization of the severely mentally ill client?

• A. Re-orientation to reality
• B. Elimination of symptoms
• C. Protection from harm to self or others
• D. Development of self-care skills

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Protection from harm to self or others.' Involuntary hospitalization is primarily aimed at ensuring the safety of the individual and others. Re-orientation to reality (choice A) may be a goal of treatment but not the primary goal of involuntary hospitalization. Elimination of symptoms (choice B) and development of self-care skills (choice D) are important aspects of treatment but are secondary to the immediate priority of ensuring safety in cases of severe mental illness.

3. The nurse is assessing a client with portal hypertension. Which of the following findings would the nurse expect?

• A. Expiratory wheezes
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Ascites
• D. Dilated pupils

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Ascites is a common finding in clients with portal hypertension. Portal hypertension results in increased pressure in the portal vein, leading to the development of ascites, which is the accumulation of fluid in the abdominal cavity. Expiratory wheezes (Choice A) are associated with respiratory conditions. Blurred vision (Choice B) is more commonly linked to eye disorders or neurological issues. Dilated pupils (Choice D) can be related to neurological conditions or drug effects, but not specifically to portal hypertension.

4. While assessing a client in an outpatient facility with a panic disorder, the nurse completes a thorough health history and physical exam. Which finding is most significant for this client?

• A. Compulsive behavior
• B. Sense of impending doom
• C. Fear of flying
• D. Predictable episodes

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Sense of impending doom.' In panic disorder, a sense of impending doom is a hallmark symptom often experienced by clients. This intense feeling of dread or fear is a key feature of panic attacks. Compulsive behavior (choice A) may be more indicative of obsessive-compulsive disorder rather than panic disorder. Fear of flying (choice C) may be more related to specific phobias rather than panic disorder. Predictable episodes (choice D) do not align with the unpredictable nature of panic attacks.

5. The nurse is administering the measles, mumps, rubella (MMR) vaccine to a 12-month-old child during the well-baby visit. Which age range should the nurse advise the parents to plan for their child to receive the MMR booster based on the current recommendations and guidelines by the CDC?

• A. 13-18 years of age
• B. 11-12 years of age
• C. 18-24 months of age
• D. 4-6 years of age

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 4-6 years of age. The CDC recommends administering the MMR booster to children aged 4 to 6 years. This booster dose is essential to ensure continued immunity against measles, mumps, and rubella. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not align with the CDC guidelines for the age range of MMR booster administration.

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