which of the following joints normally has 360 degree circumflexion
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Nursing Elites

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Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.

2. What is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Financial oversight is a primary responsibility of a healthcare manager. Healthcare managers are responsible for managing the financial aspects of healthcare facilities, including budgeting, financial planning, and ensuring financial sustainability. Direct patient care (choice A) is typically the responsibility of healthcare providers such as doctors and nurses, not managers. Ignoring staff concerns (choice C) is counterproductive and goes against effective management practices. Minimizing staff training (choice D) is also not a responsibility of a healthcare manager; on the contrary, they should ensure adequate training and development opportunities for their staff to improve patient care and overall performance.

3. Serge, who has diabetes mellitus, is taking oral agents and is scheduled for a diagnostic test that requires him to be NPO. What is the best plan of action for the nurse regarding Serge's oral medications?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best plan of action for the nurse is to notify the physician and request orders regarding Serge's oral medications. By involving the physician, the nurse ensures that appropriate instructions are obtained, considering Serge's medical condition and the need for NPO status for the diagnostic test. Administering the medications without medical guidance (choice A) can be risky, as it may affect the test results. Notifying the diagnostic department (choice B) is not the most direct and appropriate action; the physician is the primary healthcare provider responsible for medication orders. Administering the medications with water before the test (choice D) is not advisable when the patient is supposed to be NPO, as it can interfere with the test requirements.

4. Which patient is at greatest risk for papilledema?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An adolescent with a closed head injury is at the highest risk for papilledema due to increased intracranial pressure. Papilledema is often a consequence of elevated intracranial pressure, which can occur in conditions like head trauma. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with an increased risk of papilledema compared to a closed head injury, which is more likely to lead to elevated intracranial pressure and subsequent papilledema.

5. A charge nurse notices that two staff nurses are not taking meal breaks during their shifts. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to determine the reasons the nurses are not taking scheduled breaks. This action is crucial as it allows the charge nurse to understand the underlying causes for the behavior. By identifying the reasons, the nurse can then address the root of the issue effectively. Option A is incorrect because discussing time management strategies may not address the specific reasons for not taking breaks. Option B is incorrect as providing coverage for breaks does not address the underlying cause of the issue. Option D is also incorrect as reviewing policies should come after understanding the reasons for the behavior.

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