which of the following joints normally has 360 degree circumflexion
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Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.

2. Which of the following most accurately describes a current concern in health care today?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gun violence has become a growing public health concern due to the increasing rates of injury and death caused by the misuse of firearms. Choice A is incorrect because health care-associated infections are not limited to health-care settings and continue to increase. Choice B is inaccurate as preventable deaths from the opioid crisis have not led to a rise in life expectancy in the United States. Choice C is incorrect as medication errors have not been completely eliminated despite the use of electronic medication administration records.

3. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

4. Select the stage of shock that is accurately paired with its characteristic.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The progressive stage of shock is accurately described as the stage where histamine is released, leading to fluid and proteins leaking into surrounding tissues and the blood thickening. In this stage, the body's compensatory mechanisms are overwhelmed, resulting in a cascade of events that worsen the shock state. Choice A is incorrect as hyperventilation and a rise in blood pH are more characteristic of the compensatory stage. Choice B is incorrect as hypoxia and a rise in lactic acid are more typical of the progressive stage. Choice D is incorrect as the described electrolyte imbalances and metabolic acidosis are more aligned with the refractory stage of shock.

5. What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.

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