which of the following joints normally has 360 degree circumflexion
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Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.

2. Select the cranial nerve that is accurately paired with its name.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The twelfth cranial nerve is the hypoglossal nerve, which controls the muscles of the tongue. The other choices are incorrect because the trochlear nerve is the fourth cranial nerve responsible for eye movement, the olfactory nerve is the first cranial nerve responsible for the sense of smell, and there are only twelve cranial nerves, so there is no thirteenth cranial nerve.

3. What is the main objective of palliative care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main objective of palliative care is to provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life. Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients facing serious illnesses by providing relief from symptoms such as pain, stress, and other physical and emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to cure the disease but rather to manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of palliative care is not to extend hospital stays unnecessarily but to improve the patient's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is not solely focused on treatment but takes a holistic approach to care that includes addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.

4. Which insulin has the most rapid onset of action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lispro insulin has the most rapid onset of action among the options provided. It is a rapid-acting insulin analog that is designed to control postprandial hyperglycemia effectively. Lente insulin (Choice A) and Ultralente insulin (Choice C) are intermediate-acting insulins, which have a slower onset of action compared to Lispro. Humulin N (Choice D) is a neutral protamine Hagedorn (NPH) insulin, which is an intermediate-acting insulin, not rapid-acting like Lispro. Therefore, the correct choice is Lispro.

5. To resolve a conflict between staff members regarding potential changes in policy, a nurse manager decides to implement the changes she prefers regardless of the feelings of those who oppose those changes. Which of the following conflict-resolution strategies is the nurse manager using?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse manager is utilizing the competing conflict-resolution strategy. Competing involves making decisions based on one's preferences without considering the opinions or feelings of others. In this scenario, the nurse manager is unilaterally implementing changes despite opposition, demonstrating a competitive approach. Collaborating involves working together to find a mutually beneficial solution, compromising involves finding a middle ground acceptable to both parties, and cooperating involves working together towards a shared goal. These options are not applicable in this situation as the nurse manager is imposing her preferred changes without regard for others' input.

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