which of the following joints normally has 360 degree circumflexion
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Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.

2. A nurse is orienting a newly licensed nurse about client confidentiality. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of the teaching?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because encrypting personal health information when sending emails is a crucial aspect of maintaining client confidentiality. This process ensures that sensitive information is protected during electronic communication. Choice A is incorrect as sharing passwords violates client confidentiality. Choice C is incorrect as posting client's vital signs breaches confidentiality. Choice D is incorrect as discarding personal health information in the trash can lead to unauthorized access.

3. What are the fine, down-like hairs on the newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead known as?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Lanugo is the term used to describe the fine, down-like hairs found on a newborn's ears, shoulders, lower back, and/or forehead. These hairs are different from vernix, which is a waxy or cheese-like white substance covering the skin of newborns. Milia are small, white, or yellowish cysts that commonly appear on a newborn's face, while vibrissae are the thick, stiff hairs commonly found around the nose and other parts of the face.

4. Your patient has a blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L. What intervention should you anticipate for this patient?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Kidney dialysis. A blood potassium level of 9.2 mEq/L indicates severe hyperkalemia, which can be life-threatening. Kidney dialysis is the most appropriate intervention to rapidly lower potassium levels in this situation. Choice A, intravenous potassium supplementation, would worsen the hyperkalemia. Choice B, intravenous calcium supplementation, is not the primary intervention for hyperkalemia. Choice D, parenteral nutrition, is unrelated to treating hyperkalemia and would not address the immediate concern.

5. What is the main objective of palliative care?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The main objective of palliative care is to provide relief from symptoms and improve quality of life. Palliative care focuses on enhancing the quality of life for patients facing serious illnesses by providing relief from symptoms such as pain, stress, and other physical and emotional issues. Choice A is incorrect because palliative care does not aim to cure the disease but rather to manage symptoms. Choice C is incorrect as the goal of palliative care is not to extend hospital stays unnecessarily but to improve the patient's well-being. Choice D is incorrect as palliative care is not solely focused on treatment but takes a holistic approach to care that includes addressing physical, emotional, social, and spiritual needs.

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