which of the following joints normally has 360 degree circumflexion
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Nursing Elites

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Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.

2. Which of the following is a key benefit of interprofessional collaboration in healthcare?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Improved patient outcomes are a key benefit of interprofessional collaboration in healthcare. Collaboration among healthcare professionals leads to better coordination of care, reduced medical errors, and improved overall patient satisfaction. The other choices are incorrect because interprofessional collaboration aims to decrease professional isolation, enhance communication among team members, and streamline treatment processes to reduce time spent on patient care.

3. A client is in DKA, secondary to infection. As the condition progresses, which of the following symptoms might the nurse see?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), as the condition progresses, the body tries to compensate for the acidic environment by increasing the respiratory rate, leading to Kussmaul's respirations. The accumulation of ketones in the body causes a fruity odor on the breath. Option A is correct because Kussmaul's respirations and a fruity odor on the breath are classic signs of DKA. Option B is incorrect because shallow respirations are not typically seen in DKA, and severe abdominal pain is more commonly associated with conditions like pancreatitis. Option C is incorrect as decreased respirations are not a typical finding in DKA, and increased urine output is more commonly seen in conditions like diabetes insipidus. Option D is incorrect because Cheyne-Stokes respirations are not characteristic of DKA, and foul-smelling urine is not a prominent symptom in this condition.

4. Which of the following is expected to be most likely true in the near future?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In the near future, there will be an increased focus on care transitions involving nursing. This means that nurses will play a crucial role in preparing patients for transitions between different care settings, ensuring continuity and quality of care. Choice A is incorrect because quality improvement projects are essential and are not expected to decline. Choice B is incorrect as alternative and complementary approaches are increasingly being integrated into medical practice. Choice C is incorrect as there is a growing trend towards providing care in community settings and homes, moving away from primarily hospital-based care.

5. Which of the following assessment tools is used to determine the patient's level of consciousness?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, The Glasgow Scale. The Glasgow Coma Scale is specifically designed to assess a patient's level of consciousness by evaluating eye opening, verbal response, and motor response. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because the Snellen Scale is used for vision testing, the Norton Scale is used for assessing the risk of pressure sores, and the Morse Scale is used for evaluating a patient's risk of falling, not for determining the level of consciousness.

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