which of the following joints normally has 360 degree circumflexion
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Nursing Elites

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Leadership and Management HESI Test Bank

1. Which of the following joints normally allows 360-degree circumflexion?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: The shoulder. The shoulder joint is a ball-and-socket joint that allows for a wide range of motion, including 360-degree circumflexion. This joint provides flexibility and mobility in various directions. Choice A, the knee joint, primarily allows flexion and extension but does not have a 360-degree circumflexion. Choice C, the elbow joint, is a hinge joint that permits flexion and extension but not circumflexion. Choice D, the fingertips, do not form a specific joint that allows circumflexion; rather, they have joints that enable bending and straightening movements.

2. What does the mnemonic PERLA stand for in the assessment of the eyes?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Pupils equally reactive to light and accommodation.' PERLA is a mnemonic used in eye assessments to check for Pupils being equally reactive to Light and Accommodation. Choice B is incorrect as it includes irrelevant information about the eyes being recessed. Choice C is incorrect as it is missing the mention of pupils and accommodation. Choice D is incorrect as it misses the mention of accommodation.

3. Select the tactile sensation that is accurately paired with its description or procedure for testing.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Two-point discrimination: The nurse gently pricks the patient's skin. Two-point discrimination assesses the ability to discern two points touched simultaneously on the skin. Fine motor coordination (Choice A) refers to the precise movements of small muscles, not related to tactile sensation. Stereognosis (Choice B) is the ability to recognize objects by touch, not equal hearing in both ears. Gross motor function (Choice D) involves the coordination of large muscle groups, not specifically related to tactile sensation testing.

4. Which patient is exercising their right to autonomy in the context of patient rights?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. A 99-year-old exercising their right to autonomy in the context of patient rights by choosing CPR. Autonomy in healthcare refers to the patient's right to make their own decisions about their care, even if healthcare providers may disagree. In this scenario, the 99-year-old patient is exercising autonomy by making an informed choice about their medical treatment, despite healthcare professionals having a different opinion. Choices A, B, and C do not directly demonstrate the exercise of autonomy in decision-making regarding medical treatment, making them incorrect.

5. When developing an educational program for staff regarding a new intravenous pump, what is the correct sequence of actions for a nurse to take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct sequence of actions when developing an educational program for staff regarding a new intravenous pump is to first identify what skills to teach the staff members. This step is essential as it sets the foundation for the learning objectives to be developed next. Once the learning objectives are established, scheduling several sessions of the program can be planned accordingly. Finally, after the program has been conducted, program evaluation with staff members should take place to assess the effectiveness of the educational program. Therefore, options A, C, and D are out of sequence, making them incorrect choices.

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