Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following is a common side effect of opioid analgesics that the nurse should monitor for in patients?

• A. Diarrhea
• B. Hypertension
• C. Constipation
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Constipation is a common side effect of opioid analgesics due to the slowing of gastrointestinal motility. Opioids bind to receptors in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased peristalsis and increased water absorption, resulting in constipation. Monitoring for constipation is crucial to prevent discomfort or complications like bowel obstruction. Diarrhea (Choice A) is not a common side effect of opioid analgesics. Hypertension (Choice B) and Bradycardia (Choice D) are not typically associated with opioid use.

2. While caring for a client with an AV fistula in the left forearm, the PN observed a palpable buzzing sensation over the fistula. What action should the PN take?

• A. Loosen the fistula dressing
• B. Report the presence of a bounding pulse
• C. Document that the fistula is intact
• D. Apply gentle pressure over the site

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A palpable buzzing sensation, known as a thrill, over an AV fistula indicates proper functioning. The correct action for the PN is to document that the fistula is intact. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to loosen the fistula dressing when the thrill is felt. Choice B is incorrect as a bounding pulse is not related to the observed buzzing sensation. Choice D is incorrect because applying pressure is unnecessary when a thrill is present, indicating proper AV fistula function.

3. The practical nurse is caring for a client who had a total laryngectomy, left radical neck dissection, and tracheostomy. The client is receiving nasogastric tube feedings via an enteral pump. Today the rate of feeding is increased from 50 ml/hr to 75 ml/hr. What parameter should the PN use to evaluate the client's tolerance to the rate of the feeding?

• A. Daily weight
• B. Gastric residual volumes
• C. Bowel sounds
• D. Urinary and stool output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring gastric residual volumes helps to assess how well the client is tolerating the increased feeding rate. High residuals may indicate delayed gastric emptying, which could lead to complications like aspiration. This helps in adjusting the feeding plan as necessary. Daily weight (Choice A) is not the most appropriate parameter to evaluate tolerance to feeding rate changes. Bowel sounds (Choice C) and urinary/stool output (Choice D) are important assessments but do not directly indicate tolerance to enteral feeding rate changes.

4. Which of the following is NOT a second-line agent used for the treatment of Tuberculosis?

• A. Amikacin
• B. Moxifloxacin
• C. Rifabutin
• D. Cycloserine

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Rifabutin. Rifabutin is actually a first-line drug used in the treatment of tuberculosis. Choices A, B, and D (Amikacin, Moxifloxacin, and Cycloserine) are considered second-line agents for tuberculosis treatment. These drugs are used when the first-line medications are either ineffective or cannot be tolerated by the patient.

5. While turning and positioning a bedfast client, the PN observes that the client is dyspneic. Which action should the PN take first?

• A. Apply a pulse oximeter
• B. Measure blood pressure
• C. Notify the charge nurse
• D. Observe pressure areas

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Notifying the charge nurse promptly is the priority when a bedfast client is dyspneic. Dyspnea can indicate a serious problem that requires immediate assessment and intervention. Contacting the charge nurse ensures timely assistance and appropriate actions to address the client's condition. Applying a pulse oximeter or measuring blood pressure may provide valuable data, but the priority is prompt communication with the charge nurse to ensure quick intervention. Observing pressure areas, while important for overall client care, is not the most immediate action needed when a client is experiencing dyspnea.

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