Nursing Elites

1. Which of the following behaviors is influenced by cultural expectations?

• A. talking openly about the details of the illness
• B. deciding whether to 'feed a cold' or 'starve a fever'
• C. taking herbal supplements to boost the immune system
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cultural expectations can influence all the listed behaviors. Talking openly about the details of an illness may be culturally acceptable or taboo. The decision to 'feed a cold' or 'starve a fever' is often influenced by cultural beliefs and practices. Additionally, the use of herbal supplements to boost the immune system can also be shaped by cultural norms and traditions. Therefore, all the behaviors listed can be influenced by cultural expectations, making option D the correct answer. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because cultural expectations can impact each of these behaviors.

2. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

• A. Alcohol use during pregnancy
• B. Usual nutritional intake
• C. Family genetic disorders
• D. Maternal and paternal ages

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

3. What is the main focus of secondary prevention?

• A. Early detection and treatment
• B. Rehabilitation
• C. Health promotion
• D. Palliative care

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The main focus of secondary prevention is early detection and treatment of disease. This approach aims to identify health conditions in their early stages when they are easier to treat or manage effectively. Choice B, rehabilitation, is more aligned with restoring function after an illness or injury has occurred. Choice C, health promotion, concentrates on educating and empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to prevent the onset of diseases. Choice D, palliative care, is focused on providing comfort and improving the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses or at the end of life, rather than on early detection and treatment.

4. Which one of the following statements, if made by the client, indicates teaching about Inderal (propranolol) has been effective?

• A. ''I may experience seizures if I stop the medication abruptly.''
• B. ''I may experience an increase in my heart rate for a few weeks.''
• C. ''I can expect to feel nervousness the first few weeks.''
• D. ''I can have a heart attack if I stop this medication suddenly.''

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Stopping Inderal (propranolol) abruptly can cause rebound hypertension, angina, and even a myocardial infarction (heart attack), so it is crucial to taper off the medication under medical supervision. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not reflect the serious consequences associated with abrupt discontinuation of propranolol.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Constipation
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.

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