which nursing problem has the highest priority when planning care for a client with menieres disease
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical HESI 2023

1. Which nursing problem has the highest priority when planning care for a client with Meniere’s disease?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. When caring for a client with Meniere’s disease, the highest priority nursing problem is the potential for injury related to vertigo. Meniere’s disease is characterized by symptoms like vertigo, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. Ensuring the client's safety and preventing falls take precedence over other concerns. Choices B, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk of harm associated with vertigo and falls.

2. Which is a long-term complication of cleft lip and palate?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Faulty dentition.' The older child with cleft lip and palate may experience psychological difficulties due to the cosmetic appearance of the defect, issues with impaired speech, and faulty dentition. This can lead to problems with dental alignment, crowding, missing or malformed teeth, and other dental issues. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as cognitive impairment, altered growth and development, and physical abilities are not typically considered long-term complications of cleft lip and palate.

3. Based on this strip, what is the interpretation of this rhythm?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Normal sinus rhythm. Normal sinus rhythm is characterized by a regular rhythm, normal P waves, and a consistent PR interval. In this context, the strip likely shows a normal ECG pattern with these characteristics, indicating a healthy heart rhythm. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Atrial fibrillation would show an irregularly irregular rhythm with no discernible P waves. Ventricular tachycardia would display wide QRS complexes and a fast heart rate. Second-degree heart block would exhibit intermittent dropped QRS complexes.

4. In the change of shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.' Stage 2 pressure ulcers involve partial-thickness skin loss and typically appear as shallow open ulcers with a red-pink wound bed. Choice B describes a stage 1 ulcer, where the skin is intact but shows non-blanchable redness. Choice C describes a stage 3 ulcer, with full-thickness tissue loss exposing fat. Choice D is characteristic of a stage 4 ulcer, where there is full-thickness tissue loss exposing bone, tendon, or muscle. Therefore, option A best fits the description of a stage 2 pressure ulcer.

5. The nurse prepares a teaching plan for an adult client with metabolic syndrome. Which findings should the nurse address to help the client reduce the risk for diabetes mellitus and vascular disease? (Select all that apply)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the listed factors - abdominal obesity, high blood pressure, and increased triglyceride levels - are components of metabolic syndrome. Addressing these findings is crucial to help reduce the client's risk for developing diabetes mellitus and vascular disease. Abdominal obesity is a key feature of metabolic syndrome, high blood pressure (150/96 mmHg) is a risk factor, and increased triglyceride levels are also indicative of the syndrome. Educating the client on lifestyle modifications, such as healthy eating habits, regular physical activity, and monitoring these parameters, is essential in managing metabolic syndrome and preventing associated complications. Choices A, B, and C are all correct, making choice D the correct answer.

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