HESI LPN
Medical Surgical HESI 2023
1. Which nursing problem has the highest priority when planning care for a client with Meniere’s disease?
- A. Potential for injury related to vertigo.
- B. Alteration in comfort due to ear pain.
- C. Impaired skin integrity due to immobility.
- D. Anxiety due to fear of falling.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When caring for a client with Meniere’s disease, the highest priority nursing problem is the potential for injury related to vertigo. Meniere’s disease is characterized by symptoms like vertigo, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. Ensuring the client's safety and preventing falls take precedence over other concerns. Choices B, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk of harm associated with vertigo and falls.
2. A child with acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is hospitalized for treatment. What is the priority nursing intervention?
- A. Administering antibiotics
- B. Preventing infection
- C. Providing nutritional support
- D. Managing pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a child hospitalized for acute lymphoblastic leukemia (ALL) is preventing infection. Children with ALL have compromised immune systems, making them highly vulnerable to infections. Preventing infections through strict aseptic techniques, isolation precautions, and proper hygiene is crucial to safeguard the child's health. Administering antibiotics (choice A) may be necessary if an infection occurs, but the primary focus should be on infection prevention. While providing nutritional support (choice C) is important, preventing infection takes precedence due to its direct impact on the child's survival. Managing pain (choice D) is essential for the child's comfort but is not the priority over preventing life-threatening infections in this scenario.
3. Which type of Leukocyte is involved with allergic responses and the destruction of parasitic worms?
- A. Neutrophils
- B. Lymphocytes
- C. Eosinophils
- D. Monocytes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Eosinophils are the correct answer. Eosinophils are specialized white blood cells that play a crucial role in allergic responses and combating parasitic infections. They release substances to destroy parasites and modulate allergic reactions. Neutrophils (Choice A) are mainly involved in fighting bacterial infections. Lymphocytes (Choice B) play a key role in the immune response, including antibody production, but are not primarily responsible for combating parasites or allergic responses. Monocytes (Choice D) are involved in immune defense, differentiating into macrophages or dendritic cells, but they are not mainly associated with allergic responses or parasitic worm destruction.
4. A 4-month-old child taking digoxin (Lanoxin) has a blood pressure of 92/78; resting pulse of 78; respirations 28, and a potassium level of 4.8 mEq/L. The client is irritable and has vomited twice since the morning dose of digoxin. Which finding is most indicative of digoxin toxicity?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Lethargy
- C. Irritability
- D. Vomiting
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bradycardia (abnormally slow heart rate) is a key sign of digoxin toxicity. In this scenario, the child's symptoms of irritability, vomiting, along with the resting pulse of 78 despite being on digoxin, suggest an impending bradycardia due to digoxin toxicity. Lethargy can also be a sign, but in this case, the child is irritable rather than lethargic. Vomiting, though a symptom, is not as specific to digoxin toxicity as bradycardia. Irritability, while present, is not the most indicative finding of digoxin toxicity compared to bradycardia.
5. A client at 26 weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
- B. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
- C. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) test should be evaluated.
- D. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: An elevated AFP level during pregnancy can indicate potential fetal anomalies. Further evaluation is necessary to confirm the findings and assess the need for additional interventions. Scheduling a sonogram is the appropriate next step as it can provide more definitive results and help identify any underlying issues. Choice A is incorrect because dismissing the elevated AFP level as a false reading without further investigation can lead to missing important information about the baby's health. Choice C is not the best immediate action, as scheduling a sonogram would provide more detailed information than just repeating the AFP test. Choice D is incorrect as discussing intrauterine surgical correction is premature at this stage and not typically indicated based solely on an elevated AFP level.