Nursing Elites

1. When conducting an admission assessment, the LPN should ask the client about the use of complementary healing practices. Which statement is accurate regarding the use of these practices?

• A. Complementary healing practices interfere with the efficacy of the medical model of treatment.
• B. Conventional medications are likely to interact with folk remedies and cause adverse effects.
• C. Many complementary healing practices can be used in conjunction with conventional practices.
• D. Conventional medical practices will ultimately replace the use of complementary healing practices.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When considering the use of complementary healing practices, it is important to acknowledge that many of these practices can be safely integrated with conventional treatments to provide holistic care. Choice A is incorrect because complementary healing practices can complement traditional medical approaches rather than interfere with their efficacy. Choice B is incorrect as interactions between conventional medications and folk remedies may vary, but not all interactions lead to adverse effects. Choice D is incorrect as conventional medical practices and complementary healing practices can coexist and each offer benefits in healthcare.

2. After repositioning a client who reports shortness of breath, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Observe the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations.
• B. Take the client’s blood pressure.
• C. Assess the client's pulse.
• D. Offer supplemental oxygen.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Observing the rate, depth, and character of the client's respirations is crucial after repositioning a client experiencing shortness of breath. This action provides immediate information about the client's respiratory status. Checking blood pressure (Choice B) is not the priority in this situation, as assessing respirations is more urgent. Assessing the pulse (Choice C) is also important but does not provide direct information about the client's respiratory status. Offering supplemental oxygen (Choice D) may be necessary based on the assessment of respirations, but it should not be the first action taken without assessing the client's breathing pattern.

3. When documenting client care, which of the following abbreviations should be used?

• A. SS for sliding scale
• B. BRP for bathroom privileges
• C. OJ for orange juice
• D. SQ for subcutaneous

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When documenting client care, it is crucial to use standardized abbreviations to ensure clear communication and prevent misunderstandings. BRP for bathroom privileges is a recognized and commonly used abbreviation in healthcare settings. Choice A, SS for sliding scale, is not a standard abbreviation and can lead to confusion as it could be mistaken for other meanings. Choice C, OJ for orange juice, is informal and may not be universally understood in a healthcare context. Choice D, SQ for subcutaneous, is a valid abbreviation but may not be as relevant in the context of documenting client care compared to BRP, which is more specific and widely accepted.

4. The nurse is planning a meal plan that would provide the most iron for a child with anemia. Which dinner menu would be best?

• A. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, cookies, milk
• B. Ground beef patty, lima beans, wheat roll, raisins, milk
• C. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, peas, cantaloupe, milk
• D. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich, apple slices, milk

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Ground beef, lima beans, and raisins are rich sources of iron, making this meal plan the most suitable for a child with anemia. Ground beef is a high-iron meat, while lima beans and raisins are also excellent sources of iron. Fish sticks, french fries, banana, and cookies in option A lack sufficient iron content compared to the options in B. Chicken nuggets, macaroni, and peas in option C are not as iron-rich as the ground beef, lima beans, and raisins in option B. Peanut butter and jelly sandwich with apple slices in option D also fall short in providing enough iron when compared to the iron-rich components of option B.

5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

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