Nursing Elites

1. When administering an analgesic to a client with low back pain, which intervention should the practical nurse implement to promote the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Massage the lower back and position the client in proper alignment
• B. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently and take deep breaths
• C. Assist the client in performing passive and active range of motion exercises
• D. Give medication with a full glass of water and offer high-fiber foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Massaging the lower back and positioning the client in proper alignment can help relieve muscle tension and enhance the effectiveness of analgesics by providing additional comfort and promoting better pain management. This intervention directly addresses the site of pain and can improve the medication's efficacy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may have benefits in other situations, they are not directly related to promoting the effectiveness of analgesics in clients with low back pain. Encouraging ambulation and deep breathing, assisting with range of motion exercises, and offering water and high-fiber foods are important for overall patient care but are not specific to enhancing analgesic effectiveness in this context.

2. While performing an inspection of a client's fingernails, the PN observes a suspected abnormality of the nail's shape and character. Which finding should the PN document?

• A. Clubbed nails
• B. Splinter hemorrhages
• C. Longitudinal ridges
• D. Koilonychia or spoon nails

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Clubbed nails. Clubbed nails are a significant finding often associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease. The presence of clubbed nails should be documented for further evaluation. Splinter hemorrhages (Choice B) are tiny areas of bleeding under the nails and are associated with conditions like endocarditis. Longitudinal ridges (Choice C) are common and often a normal finding in older adults. Koilonychia or spoon nails (Choice D) refer to nails that are concave or scooped out, often seen in conditions like iron deficiency anemia or hemochromatosis. These conditions are not typically associated with chronic hypoxia or lung disease, making them less likely findings in this situation.

3. What is the primary reason for applying sequential compression devices (SCDs) to a patient’s legs postoperatively?

• A. To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)
• B. To promote wound healing
• C. To reduce postoperative pain
• D. To maintain body temperature

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: To prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Sequential compression devices (SCDs) are used postoperatively to prevent DVT by promoting blood circulation in the legs. This helps reduce the risk of blood clots forming in the deep veins of the legs. Choice B, to promote wound healing, is incorrect as SCDs are primarily used for circulatory purposes rather than wound healing. Choice C, to reduce postoperative pain, is incorrect as the primary purpose of SCDs is not pain management but rather prevention of DVT. Choice D, to maintain body temperature, is incorrect as SCDs are not designed for regulating body temperature but for preventing circulatory issues.

4. Which electrolyte imbalance is most commonly associated with seizures?

• A. Hyponatremia
• B. Hypercalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hyponatremia. Hyponatremia, characterized by low sodium levels in the blood, can lead to cerebral edema and seizures due to water shifting into brain cells. Hypercalcemia (choice B) does not commonly cause seizures but can result in muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias. Hyperkalemia (choice C) may lead to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias, but it is less frequently associated with seizures. Hypokalemia (choice D) is linked to muscle weakness and cardiac arrhythmias but is not typically related to seizures.

5. The mother of a 9-month-old child diagnosed with respiratory syncytial virus (RSV) yesterday calls the clinic to inquire if it will be all right to take her infant to a friend's child's first birthday party the following day. Which response should the nurse provide?

• A. Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact
• B. The child will no longer be contagious, no need to take any further precautions
• C. The child can be around other children but should wear a mask
• D. Make sure there are no children under the age of 5 months around the infected child

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct response is A: 'Do not expose other children as the virus is very contagious even without direct contact.' RSV is highly contagious, especially in young children. Allowing the infected child to attend a birthday party can put other children at risk of contracting the virus. Choice B is incorrect as RSV can remain contagious for a period of time. Choice C is not sufficient, as wearing a mask may not entirely prevent the spread of the virus. Choice D is inaccurate, as children under 5 months are not the only ones susceptible to RSV; all young children are at risk.

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