Nursing Elites

1. When administering an analgesic to a client with low back pain, which intervention should the practical nurse implement to promote the effectiveness of the medication?

• A. Massage the lower back and position the client in proper alignment
• B. Encourage the client to ambulate frequently and take deep breaths
• C. Assist the client in performing passive and active range of motion exercises
• D. Give medication with a full glass of water and offer high-fiber foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Massaging the lower back and positioning the client in proper alignment can help relieve muscle tension and enhance the effectiveness of analgesics by providing additional comfort and promoting better pain management. This intervention directly addresses the site of pain and can improve the medication's efficacy. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while they may have benefits in other situations, they are not directly related to promoting the effectiveness of analgesics in clients with low back pain. Encouraging ambulation and deep breathing, assisting with range of motion exercises, and offering water and high-fiber foods are important for overall patient care but are not specific to enhancing analgesic effectiveness in this context.

2. While assessing an older male client who takes psychotropic medications, the nurse observes uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking. Which information in the client's medical record should the nurse review?

• A. Prescription for lorazepam
• B. History of Parkinson's disease
• C. Screening for tardive dyskinesia
• D. Recent urine drug screen report

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The symptoms of uncontrollable hand movements and excessive blinking are indicative of tardive dyskinesia, a possible side effect of long-term use of psychotropic medications. Reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia is crucial to assess if these symptoms are related to the medication. Option A, the prescription for lorazepam, is less relevant as the focus should be on potential side effects rather than the specific medication. Option B, history of Parkinson's disease, is not directly related to the observed symptoms, which are more likely linked to medication side effects. Option D, recent urine drug screen report, is not as pertinent in this context compared to reviewing the screening for tardive dyskinesia.

3. Which of the following best describes the role of insulin in the body?

• A. Insulin helps break down glucose into energy for the body
• B. Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells
• C. Insulin converts excess glucose into fat for storage
• D. Insulin increases the breakdown of protein into amino acids

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Insulin facilitates the movement of glucose into cells. Insulin is a hormone that helps regulate blood sugar levels by promoting the uptake of glucose from the bloodstream into cells, where it can be used for energy production. Choice A is incorrect because insulin doesn't break down glucose but rather helps cells take up glucose. Choice C is incorrect as insulin does not directly convert glucose into fat; excess glucose is stored as fat by other processes. Choice D is incorrect as insulin does not increase the breakdown of protein into amino acids; its primary role is in glucose metabolism.

4. What is the first step in using an automated external defibrillator (AED) on a patient who has collapsed?

• A. Apply the pads to the chest
• B. Turn on the AED and follow the voice prompts
• C. Check the patient's pulse
• D. Ensure the area is clear before delivering a shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Turn on the AED and follow the voice prompts. This is the first step in using an AED as the device will guide you through the process of analyzing the heart rhythm and delivering a shock if necessary. Choice A, applying the pads to the chest, comes after turning on the AED. Checking the patient's pulse (Choice C) is not necessary before using an AED as the device is specifically designed to assess the need for defibrillation. Ensuring the area is clear (Choice D) is important for safety but is not the initial step in using an AED.

5. A male client with TB returns to the clinic for daily antibiotic injections for a urinary infection. The client has been taking anti-tubercular medications for 10 weeks and states he has ringing in his ears. Which prescribed medication should the PN report to the HCP?

• A. Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin
• B. Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily
• C. Rifampin 600 mg PO daily
• D. Isoniazid 300 mg PO daily

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Gentamicin 160 mg IM daily. Gentamicin is an aminoglycoside antibiotic that can cause ototoxicity, leading to ringing in the ears (tinnitus). This symptom should be reported to the HCP immediately, as it may indicate a need to adjust or discontinue the medication. Choice A, Pyridoxine with a B complex multivitamin, is not the cause of ototoxicity. Choices C and D, Rifampin and Isoniazid, are anti-tubercular medications but are not associated with causing ringing in the ears.

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