Nursing Elites

1. A client who had surgery yesterday is becoming increasingly anxious. The client’s respiratory rate has increased to 38 breaths/minute. The client has a nasogastric tube to low intermittent suction with 500 ml of yellow-green drainage over the last four hours. The client's arterial blood gases (ABGs) indicate a decreased CO2 and an increased serum pH. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor first?

• A. Electrolytes.
• B. Creatinine.
• C. Blood urea nitrogen.
• D. Glucose.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Electrolytes. In this scenario, the client is at risk for metabolic alkalosis due to the loss of gastric secretions through the nasogastric tube. Monitoring electrolytes is crucial to assess the levels of sodium, potassium, chloride, and bicarbonate, which are important in maintaining the acid-base balance of the body. Changes in these electrolyte levels can provide valuable information about the client's fluid status and acid-base balance. Creatinine, blood urea nitrogen, and glucose levels are important parameters to monitor in different situations but are not the priority in this case of potential metabolic alkalosis.

2. The nurse determines that an adult client who is admitted to the post-anesthesia care unit (PACU) following abdominal surgery has a tympanic temperature of 94.6°F (34.4°C), a pulse rate of 88 beats/minute, a respiratory rate of 14 breaths/minute, and a blood pressure of 94/68 mmHg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Check the BP every five minutes for one hour.
• B. Raise the HOB 60 to 90 degrees.
• C. Ask the client to cough and deep breathe.
• D. Take the client’s temperature using another method.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Taking the temperature using another method is essential in this situation to verify if the low reading is accurate and requires further intervention. The tympanic temperature of 94.6°F may be inaccurate due to various factors such as improper technique or environmental conditions. Checking the blood pressure every five minutes for one hour (Choice A) is not the priority in this case as the low blood pressure reading alone does not necessitate such frequent monitoring. Raising the head of the bed 60 to 90 degrees (Choice B) is not directly related to addressing the low temperature and blood pressure. Asking the client to cough and deep breathe (Choice C) is a general intervention that may not directly address the specific concern of the low temperature reading.

3. Which type of lipoprotein is associated with decreasing the risk of atherosclerosis?

• A. High-density lipoprotein (HDL)
• B. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)
• C. Very low-density lipoprotein (VLDL)
• D. Intermediate-density lipoprotein (IDL)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is High-density lipoprotein (HDL). HDL is known as 'good' cholesterol because it helps remove cholesterol from the arteries, reducing the risk of atherosclerosis. LDL (choice B) is considered 'bad' cholesterol as it can deposit cholesterol in the arteries, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis. VLDL (choice C) and IDL (choice D) are also associated with increased risk of atherosclerosis rather than decreasing it.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What do these symptoms indicate?

• A. Hypoglycemia
• B. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA)
• C. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS)
• D. Insulin shock

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia are classic signs of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), which occurs due to a combination of hyperglycemia and ketone production. Hypoglycemia (Choice A) is characterized by low blood sugar levels, leading to symptoms like confusion, shakiness, and sweating, which are different from the symptoms described in the scenario. Hyperosmolar hyperglycemic state (HHS) (Choice C) typically presents with severe hyperglycemia, dehydration, and altered mental status, rather than the triad of symptoms mentioned. Insulin shock (Choice D) refers to a severe hypoglycemic reaction due to excessive insulin, manifesting with confusion, sweating, and rapid heartbeat, not the symptoms seen in the client with diabetes mellitus described in this scenario.

5. When planning care for a client newly diagnosed with open-angle glaucoma, the nurse identifies a priority nursing problem of visual sensory/perceptual alterations. This problem is based on which etiology?

• A. Limited eye movement.
• B. Decreased peripheral vision.
• C. Blurred distance vision.
• D. Photosensitivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased peripheral vision. In open-angle glaucoma, decreased peripheral vision is a characteristic symptom resulting from increased intraocular pressure. This visual impairment can lead to sensory/perceptual alterations. Choice A, limited eye movement, is not directly associated with the pathophysiology of open-angle glaucoma. Choice C, blurred distance vision, is more commonly seen in conditions like myopia or presbyopia. Choice D, photosensitivity, is not a typical manifestation of open-angle glaucoma and is more commonly associated with conditions like migraines or certain medications.

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