Nursing Elites

1. What should the nurse caring for a 6-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis anticipate as the most challenging aspect of care to implement?

• A. Forced fluids
• B. Increased feedings
• C. Bed rest
• D. Frequent position changes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bed rest. During the acute phase of glomerulonephritis, bed rest is usually recommended. A diet of restricted fluid, sodium, potassium, and phosphate is initially required. Bed rest can be very challenging to implement with an active 6-year-old child. Forced fluids (choice A) may be necessary to maintain hydration. Increased feedings (choice B) may not be as difficult to implement as bed rest. Frequent position changes (choice D) may also be important but are not typically the most challenging aspect of care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis.

2. An adult woman with primary Raynaud phenomenon develops pallor and then cyanosis of her fingers. After warming her hands, the fingers turn red, and the client reports a burning sensation. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Apply a cool compress to the affected fingers for 20 minutes
• B. Secure a pulse oximeter to monitor the client's oxygen saturation
• C. Report the finding to the healthcare provider as soon as possible
• D. Continue to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In primary Raynaud phenomenon, the fingers go through a color sequence of pallor, cyanosis, and then redness when warmed. The burning sensation reported by the client indicates reperfusion. Continuing to monitor the fingers until the color returns to normal is appropriate in this situation as it ensures that the symptoms are resolving without the need for further intervention. Applying a cool compress could exacerbate the symptoms by causing vasoconstriction. Securing a pulse oximeter to monitor oxygen saturation is not necessary in this case as the issue is related to vasospasm rather than oxygenation. Reporting the finding to the healthcare provider is not urgent unless there are signs of complications or the symptoms do not improve with warming.

3. The nurse is teaching a client how to collect a sputum specimen. Which steps should the nurse instruct the client to follow when collecting sputum?

• A. Breathe deeply, followed by swallowing.
• B. Breathe deeply, followed by spitting into a cup.
• C. Breathe deeply, followed by coughing up the sputum.
• D. Breathe deeply, followed by clearing the throat.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to breathe deeply followed by coughing up the sputum. This method ensures that the specimen is collected from the lower respiratory tract and is not contaminated by saliva. Choice A (swallowing) does not result in sputum collection, while choice B (spitting into a cup) may lead to saliva contamination. Choice D (clearing the throat) is not an effective way to collect sputum as it may involve getting rid of saliva, not sputum.

4. Parents of a 6-month-old child, who has just been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia, ask why it was not diagnosed earlier. What would be the best response by the nurse?

• A. Are you sure your child has iron deficiency anemia?
• B. This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.
• C. This anemia is caused by blood loss.
• D. The child may not have had it for a long time.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The best response by the nurse would be choice B: 'This happens when the maternal stores of iron are depleted at about 6 months.' Iron deficiency anemia becomes apparent at about 6 months of age in a full-term infant when the maternal stores of iron are depleted. Choice A is incorrect because it questions the diagnosis provided by the healthcare provider. Choice C is incorrect because iron deficiency anemia in infants is primarily due to insufficient iron intake rather than blood loss. Choice D is incorrect as iron deficiency anemia typically develops gradually due to inadequate iron intake.

5. A client is receiving a continuous infusion of normal saline at 125 ml/hour post abdominal surgery. The client is drowsy and complaining of constant abdominal pain and a headache. Urine output is 800 ml over the past 24h with a central venous pressure of 15 mmHg. The nurse notes respiratory crackle and bounding central pulses. Vital signs: temperature 101.2°F, Heart rate 96 beats/min, Respirations 24 breaths/min, and Blood pressure 160/90 mmHg. Which interventions should the nurse implement first?

• A. Review the last administration of IV pain medication.
• B. Administer a PRN dose of acetaminophen.
• C. Decrease IV fluids to keep the vein open (KVO) rate.
• D. Calculate total intake and output.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to decrease IV fluids to the keep vein open (KVO) rate. The client is showing signs of fluid volume excess, such as drowsiness, headache, elevated CVP, crackles, bounding pulses, and increased blood pressure. Decreasing the IV fluids will help prevent further fluid overload. Reviewing the last administration of IV pain medication (Choice A) may be necessary but addressing the fluid balance issue is the priority. Administering a PRN dose of acetaminophen (Choice B) may help with the headache but does not address the underlying fluid overload. Calculating total intake and output (Choice D) is important but does not directly address the immediate issue of fluid overload and its associated symptoms.

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