what should the nurse caring for a 6 year old child with acute glomerulonephritis anticipate as the most difficult part of the care to implement
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet

1. What should the nurse caring for a 6-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis anticipate as the most challenging aspect of care to implement?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bed rest. During the acute phase of glomerulonephritis, bed rest is usually recommended. A diet of restricted fluid, sodium, potassium, and phosphate is initially required. Bed rest can be very challenging to implement with an active 6-year-old child. Forced fluids (choice A) may be necessary to maintain hydration. Increased feedings (choice B) may not be as difficult to implement as bed rest. Frequent position changes (choice D) may also be important but are not typically the most challenging aspect of care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis.

2. When performing an assessment of a child with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP), what symptom is the child most likely to experience?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a child with recurrent abdominal pain (RAP), constipation is a common symptom. Children with RAP often experience periumbilical pain that is unrelated to eating, defecation, or exercise. While increased temperature, right quadrant pain, and exercise-associated pain can occur in various conditions, they are not typically associated with RAP in children.

3. An older client is receiving an IV of 5% dextrose in 0.45% normal saline at 75 mL/hour. Which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the client is developing a complication from this therapy?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Tachycardia and dyspnea are signs of fluid overload, which is a potential complication of IV fluid therapy. Choices A, B, and C are not directly related to fluid overload and are not typical signs of complications associated with the IV fluid therapy being administered.

4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103.8°F, blood pressure 90/70, pulse 124 beats/min, and respirations of 28 breaths/min. When the nurse assesses the client's findings, they include a mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take first is to initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids. In this scenario, the client is showing signs of sepsis, indicated by a high temperature, low blood pressure, rapid heart rate, and increased respiratory rate. Mottled skin appearance and confusion are also signs of poor perfusion. Initiating IV fluids is crucial in treating sepsis to maintain blood pressure and perfusion. Obtaining a wound specimen for culture (Choice A) can be important but is not the priority at this moment. Transferring the client to the ICU (Choice C) can be considered after stabilizing the client. Assessing the client's core temperature (Choice D) is not the immediate priority compared to addressing the signs of sepsis and poor perfusion.

5. What are early signs of varicella disease?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct early sign of varicella disease is general malaise. During the prodromal period, patients may experience low-grade fever, malaise, and anorexia. Increased appetite and crusty sores are not typically early signs of varicella. The appearance of lesions occurs later in the course of the disease.

Similar Questions

The mother of a child who has been diagnosed with varicella asks the nurse when the child can return to school. When is the child no longer contagious?
A new mother asks the clinic nurse if she must continue giving her baby nystatin for thrush since the white lesions on his tongue have disappeared. What response by the nurse is most appropriate?
Which signs/symptoms would be considered classical signs of meningeal irritation?
A male client with acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) and Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia has a CD4+ T cell count of 200 cells/microliter. The client asks the nurse why he keeps getting these massive infections. Which pathophysiologic mechanism should the nurse describe in response to the client's question?
During a paracentesis, two liters of fluid are removed from the abdomen of a client with ascites. A drainage bag is placed, and 50 ml of straw-colored fluid drains within the first hour. What action should the nurse implement?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses