HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. What should the nurse caring for a 6-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis anticipate as the most challenging aspect of care to implement?
- A. Forced fluids
- B. Increased feedings
- C. Bed rest
- D. Frequent position changes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bed rest. During the acute phase of glomerulonephritis, bed rest is usually recommended. A diet of restricted fluid, sodium, potassium, and phosphate is initially required. Bed rest can be very challenging to implement with an active 6-year-old child. Forced fluids (choice A) may be necessary to maintain hydration. Increased feedings (choice B) may not be as difficult to implement as bed rest. Frequent position changes (choice D) may also be important but are not typically the most challenging aspect of care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis.
2. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?
- A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
- B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.
3. An older adult woman with a long history of COPD is admitted with progressive shortness of breath and a persistent cough, is anxious, and is complaining of dry mouth. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Administer a prescribed sedative
- B. Encourage client to drink water
- C. Apply a high flow venturi mask
- D. Assist her to an upright position
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Assisting the client to an upright position is the most appropriate intervention in this situation. Placing the client upright helps improve lung expansion by reducing diaphragmatic pressure, facilitating better air exchange, and increasing oxygenation. This position also aids in easing breathing efforts. Administering a sedative (Choice A) may further depress the respiratory system, worsening the breathing problem. Encouraging the client to drink water (Choice B) may not directly address the respiratory distress caused by COPD. Applying a high flow venturi mask (Choice C) may be beneficial in some cases but assisting the client to an upright position should be the priority to optimize respiratory function.
4. A male client with Herpes Zoster (shingles) on his thorax tells the nurse that he is having difficulty sleeping. What is the etiology of this problem?
- A. Pain
- B. Nocturia
- C. Dyspnea
- D. Frequent cough
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Pain. The pain caused by Herpes Zoster (shingles) can disrupt sleep patterns. It is a common symptom of shingles and can lead to difficulty falling asleep or staying asleep. Nocturia (B), dyspnea (C), and frequent cough (D) are not typically associated with shingles and would not directly cause difficulty sleeping in this scenario.
5. The nurse is reviewing blood pressure readings for a group of clients on a medical unit. Which client is at the highest risk for complications related to hypertension?
- A. Post-menopausal Caucasian female who overeats and is 20% above her ideal body weight.
- B. Young adult Hispanic female who has hemoglobin at 11 g/dl (110 g/L) and drinks beer daily.
- C. Older adult who consumes a diet of smoked, cured, and pickled foods.
- D. Middle-aged African-American male who has a serum creatinine level of 2.9 mg/dL (256.4 micromol/L).
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D. An elevated serum creatinine level indicates kidney damage, which significantly increases the risk of complications from hypertension. High blood pressure can damage the kidneys over time, leading to impaired kidney function. Choices A, B, and C do not directly correlate with increased risk of complications related to hypertension. Choice A focuses on obesity and overeating, Choice B on anemia and alcohol consumption, and Choice C on a diet high in sodium and nitrates, none of which are as directly related to hypertension complications as kidney damage.
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