HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI Quizlet
1. What should the nurse caring for a 6-year-old child with acute glomerulonephritis anticipate as the most challenging aspect of care to implement?
- A. Forced fluids
- B. Increased feedings
- C. Bed rest
- D. Frequent position changes
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Bed rest. During the acute phase of glomerulonephritis, bed rest is usually recommended. A diet of restricted fluid, sodium, potassium, and phosphate is initially required. Bed rest can be very challenging to implement with an active 6-year-old child. Forced fluids (choice A) may be necessary to maintain hydration. Increased feedings (choice B) may not be as difficult to implement as bed rest. Frequent position changes (choice D) may also be important but are not typically the most challenging aspect of care for a child with acute glomerulonephritis.
2. Which nursing problem has the highest priority when planning care for a client with Meniere’s disease?
- A. Potential for injury related to vertigo.
- B. Alteration in comfort due to ear pain.
- C. Impaired skin integrity due to immobility.
- D. Anxiety due to fear of falling.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. When caring for a client with Meniere’s disease, the highest priority nursing problem is the potential for injury related to vertigo. Meniere’s disease is characterized by symptoms like vertigo, which can increase the risk of falls and injuries. Ensuring the client's safety and preventing falls take precedence over other concerns. Choices B, C, and D are not the highest priority because they do not directly address the immediate risk of harm associated with vertigo and falls.
3. In planning care for a postoperative client with hypovolemic shock, which problem is most important to include in the plan of care?
- A. Risk for infection.
- B. Risk for falls.
- C. Impaired skin integrity.
- D. Activity intolerance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk for falls. In a postoperative client with hypovolemic shock, the most crucial problem to address is the risk for falls. Hypovolemic shock can result in dizziness and weakness, making the client prone to falling. Preventing falls is essential to avoid further injury or complications. Choices A, C, and D are not the top priority in this scenario. While infection, impaired skin integrity, and activity intolerance are important concerns, preventing falls takes precedence due to the immediate risk of injury associated with hypovolemic shock.
4. Which statement correctly explains the etiology of Down syndrome?
- A. There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
- B. There is a missing chromosome on the 21st pair.
- C. There are two pairs of the 21st chromosome.
- D. The 21st chromosome pair is missing.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'There is an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.' Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21, known as trisomy 21. This additional genetic material leads to the characteristics associated with Down syndrome. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because Down syndrome is not due to a missing chromosome or having two pairs of the 21st chromosome; it results from the presence of an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.
5. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving heparin therapy. Which laboratory test should the nurse monitor to evaluate the effectiveness of the heparin?
- A. Complete blood count (CBC)
- B. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
- C. Prothrombin time (PT)
- D. International normalized ratio (INR)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT). This test is used to monitor the effectiveness of heparin therapy. A complete blood count (CBC) (choice A) is not specific for monitoring heparin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) (choice C) and International normalized ratio (INR) (choice D) are more commonly used to monitor warfarin therapy, not heparin.
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