HESI LPN
HESI Leadership and Management Quizlet
1. What is the purpose of a healthcare audit?
- A. To increase paperwork
- B. To assess and improve quality of care
- C. To reduce patient satisfaction
- D. To limit healthcare services
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'To assess and improve quality of care.' Healthcare audits are conducted to evaluate the quality and efficiency of healthcare services provided. Choice A, 'To increase paperwork,' is incorrect as audits aim to streamline processes and reduce unnecessary paperwork. Choice C, 'To reduce patient satisfaction,' is incorrect as audits are meant to identify areas for improvement to enhance patient satisfaction. Choice D, 'To limit healthcare services,' is also incorrect as audits help in optimizing healthcare services rather than limiting them.
2. A nurse is comparing the rate of medication errors on the medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Which of the following quality improvement methods is the nurse using?
- A. Structure audit
- B. Benchmarking
- C. Risk benefit analysis
- D. Root cause analysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Benchmarking. Benchmarking involves comparing performance metrics with those from other units or institutions, which is exactly what the nurse is doing by comparing the rate of medication errors on their medical unit to the rate from a medical unit in a magnet hospital. Choice A, Structure audit, is not relevant to this scenario as it focuses on assessing the physical, organizational, or procedural structures in a healthcare setting. Choice C, Risk benefit analysis, involves weighing the potential risks and benefits of a particular course of action, not comparing performance metrics. Choice D, Root cause analysis, is a method used to identify the underlying causes of problems or adverse events, not to compare performance metrics between units.
3. A clinical instructor teaches a class for the public about diabetes mellitus. Which individual does the nurse assess as being at highest risk for developing diabetes?
- A. The 50-year-old client who does not engage in any physical exercise
- B. The 56-year-old client who drinks three glasses of wine daily
- C. The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight
- D. The 38-year-old client who smokes one pack of cigarettes daily
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The 42-year-old client who is 50 pounds overweight is at the highest risk for developing diabetes. Excess weight is a significant risk factor for diabetes as it can lead to insulin resistance and metabolic abnormalities. Choices A, B, and D are also risk factors for diabetes, but being overweight has a stronger association with the development of the condition compared to lack of exercise, excessive alcohol consumption, or smoking.
4. A nurse is receiving a verbal prescription from the provider for a client who is experiencing increased pain. The nurse should transcribe which of the following prescriptions in the client's medical record?
- A. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain
- B. MS 10 mg IV every 4 8 prn for pain
- C. MSO4 10 mg IVP q 4 8 prn for pain
- D. Morphine sulfate 10.0 mg every 4 hours IV prn for pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct transcription is 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain.' In choice A, 'Morphine sulfate 10 mg IV q 4 IV prn for pain' correctly indicates the medication, route (IV), frequency (every 4 hours), and administration as needed for pain control. Choice B is incorrect as 'MS' is not a standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and the frequency 'every 4 8' is not a valid time interval. Choice C is incorrect as 'MSO4' is not the standard abbreviation for Morphine Sulfate, and 'IVP' is not the standard route abbreviation for intravenous. Choice D is incorrect as it lacks clarity with '10.0 mg' instead of '10 mg,' and the frequency is given as 'every 4 hours' without specifying the route of administration.
5. A client with DM states, 'I cannot eat big meals; I prefer to snack throughout the day.' The nurse should carefully explain that the:
- A. Regulated food intake is crucial for control
- B. Restricting salt and sugar is the main concern
- C. Opting for small, frequent meals aids digestion
- D. Consuming large meals can contribute to weight issues
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In clients with diabetes, regulated food intake is crucial for controlling blood glucose levels. Choice A is the correct answer because maintaining consistent meal sizes and timings helps in managing blood sugar levels effectively. Choice B is incorrect because while monitoring salt and sugar intake is important, it is not the primary consideration in this scenario. Choice C is incorrect as the focus is on regulating food intake rather than aiding digestion. Choice D is also incorrect because consuming large meals can indeed lead to fluctuations in blood glucose levels, but the primary concern in this case is the regulation of food intake for better control of diabetes.
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