HESI LPN
Nutrition Final Exam
1. What is the main function of proteins in the body?
- A. They provide structural components for the body.
- B. They assist in the absorption of vitamins.
- C. They help with the transport of nutrients in the blood.
- D. They help maintain fluid balance in the body.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The main function of proteins in the body is to provide structural components like muscles, skin, and bones. Proteins are essential for growth, repair, and maintenance of body tissues. While proteins play a role in various physiological functions, their primary function is not to assist in the absorption of vitamins (Choice B), help with the transport of nutrients in the blood (Choice C), or maintain fluid balance (Choice D).
2. A nurse is preparing to discharge a client who has end-stage heart failure. The client's partner tells the nurse she can no longer handle caring for the client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Request another family member to assist the client's partner with care
- B. Recommend the partner to place the client in a long-term care facility
- C. Contact the case manager to discuss discharge options
- D. Ask the provider to delay the client's discharge home for a few more days
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should contact the case manager to discuss discharge options and support the client's partner. This action is appropriate as it involves seeking professional guidance and support for the client's partner who is struggling to care for the client. Option A is not the best choice as it solely focuses on involving another family member without addressing the partner's concerns directly. Option B is premature as recommending long-term care should be a well-considered decision involving multiple healthcare professionals. Option D delays the inevitable without providing a solution to the partner's current challenges.
3. A parent arrives in the emergency clinic with a 3-month-old baby who says, “My baby stopped breathing for a while.” The infant continues to have difficulty breathing, with prolonged periods of apnea. Which assessment data should alert the nurse to suspect shaken baby syndrome (SBS)?
- A. Birth occurred before 32 weeks’ gestation
- B. Lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds
- C. Previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds
- D. Retractions and use of accessory respiratory muscles
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Retractions and the use of accessory respiratory muscles can be signs of respiratory distress, which may indicate trauma such as shaken baby syndrome (SBS). Shaken baby syndrome can result in brain injury and respiratory compromise, leading to breathing difficulties. Choices A, B, and C are less likely to be associated with SBS. Birth before 32 weeks’ gestation is more related to prematurity rather than SBS. The lack of stridor and adventitious breath sounds, as well as previous episodes of apnea lasting 10 to 15 seconds, are not specific indicators of SBS.
4. A client with schizophrenia receiving haloperidol (Haldol) has a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking. What is the nurse's priority action?
- A. Administer a PRN dose of lorazepam (Ativan).
- B. Encourage the client to perform facial exercises.
- C. Notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS).
- D. Document the findings and continue to monitor the client.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the healthcare provider of possible extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS). The symptoms described, such as a stiff, mask-like facial expression and difficulty speaking, are indicative of EPS, which can be a serious side effect of haloperidol. It is crucial to involve the healthcare provider immediately to address these symptoms. Administering a PRN dose of lorazepam (Choice A) is not the priority in this situation, as it does not address the underlying cause of EPS. Encouraging the client to perform facial exercises (Choice B) is not appropriate and may not effectively manage EPS. Documenting the findings and continuing to monitor the client (Choice D) is important but not the priority when potential EPS is present; immediate action by notifying the healthcare provider is essential.
5. The caregiver is teaching parents about the diet for a 4-month-old infant with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration. In addition to oral rehydration fluids, the diet should include
- A. Formula or breast milk
- B. Broth and tea
- C. Rice cereal and apple juice
- D. Gelatin and ginger ale
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Formula or breast milk. In infants with gastroenteritis and mild dehydration, it is essential to continue feeding them with formula or breast milk along with oral rehydration fluids to provide adequate nutrition and maintain hydration. Option B, broth and tea, may not provide the necessary nutrients and electrolytes needed for the infant's recovery. Option C, rice cereal and apple juice, can be harsh on the digestive system and may exacerbate diarrhea. Option D, gelatin and ginger ale, do not provide the necessary nutrients and can worsen the condition due to the high sugar content in ginger ale.