Nursing Elites

1. On the third day of hospitalization, the nurse observes that a 2-year-old toddler who had been screaming and crying inconsolably begins to regress and is now lying quietly in the crib with a blanket. What stage of separation anxiety has developed?

• A. Denial
• B. Despair
• C. Mistrust
• D. Rejection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Despair. In separation anxiety, the stage of despair is characterized by regression and withdrawal after an initial period of protest. The child may become quiet and appear to accept the separation, but this is actually a sign of deeper distress. Choice A, Denial, is incorrect as it refers to refusing to believe or accept the reality of the separation. Choice C, Mistrust, is incorrect as it pertains to a lack of trust in others, not a stage of separation anxiety. Choice D, Rejection, is incorrect as it involves pushing others away and not related to the described behavior of the toddler in the scenario.

2. What should be the priority action when caring for a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis?

• A. Initiate measures to reduce fever.
• B. Ensure delivery of humidified oxygen.
• C. Provide support to reduce apprehension.
• D. Continually assess the respiratory status.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When caring for a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis, the priority action should be to continually assess the respiratory status. This is crucial to detect early signs of respiratory distress, such as worsening stridor or increased work of breathing. Prompt intervention can prevent further deterioration of the child's condition. Initiating measures to reduce fever (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Ensuring delivery of humidified oxygen (Choice B) is important for maintaining oxygenation but should follow the assessment of respiratory status. Providing support to reduce apprehension (Choice C) is also important for the child's comfort but is not the priority over assessing and managing respiratory distress.

3. What explanation should the nurse give a parent about the purpose of a tetanus toxoid injection for their child?

• A. Passive immunity is conferred temporarily.
• B. Long-lasting active immunity is conferred.
• C. Lifelong active natural immunity is conferred.
• D. Passive natural immunity is conferred temporarily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Long-lasting active immunity is conferred. Tetanus toxoid injection works by stimulating the child's body to produce its antibodies, providing long-lasting active immunity. Choice A is incorrect because passive immunity is not conferred for life; it is temporary and involves receiving antibodies rather than producing them internally. Choice C is incorrect as the immunity conferred by the tetanus toxoid injection is not lifelong natural immunity but rather active immunity stimulated by the body's immune response. Choice D is also incorrect since passive natural immunity is not conferred by the tetanus toxoid injection, and it is not temporary.

4. Upon assessing a newborn immediately after delivery, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What is the most appropriate initial management for this newborn?

• A. begin positive pressure ventilations
• B. provide blow-by oxygen with oxygen tubing
• C. assess the newborn's skin condition and color
• D. start chest compressions and contact medical control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 100 beats/min in a newborn indicates the need for positive pressure ventilation to improve oxygenation. Providing positive pressure ventilations helps in assisting the newborn's breathing efforts to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choice B, providing blow-by oxygen, may not be sufficient to address the underlying issue of inadequate breathing. Choice C, assessing the newborn's skin condition and color, is important but not the most immediate action needed for a heart rate below 100 beats/min. Choice D, starting chest compressions, is not indicated as the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate, albeit lower than normal, which does not warrant chest compressions.

5. Which best describes a full-thickness (third-degree) burn?

• A. Erythema and pain
• B. Skin showing erythema followed by blister formation
• C. Destruction of all layers of skin evident with extension into subcutaneous tissue
• D. Destruction injury involving underlying structures such as muscle, fascia, and bone

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full-thickness (third-degree) burn involves the destruction of all layers of skin, including the epidermis, dermis, and extending into the subcutaneous tissue. This type of burn results in significant tissue damage and can appear pale, charred, or leathery. Choice A is incorrect as erythema and pain are more characteristic of superficial burns. Choice B describes a partial-thickness burn where the skin shows erythema followed by blister formation, involving the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice D is incorrect as it describes a deeper type of injury involving structures beyond the skin layers, such as muscle, fascia, and bone, which is not specific to a full-thickness burn.

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