Nursing Elites

1. On the third day of hospitalization, the nurse observes that a 2-year-old toddler who had been screaming and crying inconsolably begins to regress and is now lying quietly in the crib with a blanket. What stage of separation anxiety has developed?

• A. Denial
• B. Despair
• C. Mistrust
• D. Rejection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Despair. In separation anxiety, the stage of despair is characterized by regression and withdrawal after an initial period of protest. The child may become quiet and appear to accept the separation, but this is actually a sign of deeper distress. Choice A, Denial, is incorrect as it refers to refusing to believe or accept the reality of the separation. Choice C, Mistrust, is incorrect as it pertains to a lack of trust in others, not a stage of separation anxiety. Choice D, Rejection, is incorrect as it involves pushing others away and not related to the described behavior of the toddler in the scenario.

2. What is the typical therapeutic management treatment for children with Hirschsprung disease?

• A. Daily enemas
• B. Low-fiber diet
• C. Permanent colostomy
• D. Surgical removal of affected section of bowel

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most common treatment for Hirschsprung disease is the surgical removal of the affected section of the bowel. This procedure entails excising the part of the colon that lacks nerve cells crucial for normal bowel function. Daily enemas (Choice A) can offer temporary relief for constipation but do not address the root cause of the condition, which is the absence of nerve cells. A low-fiber diet (Choice B) is not a primary therapy for Hirschsprung disease and may not effectively manage the disorder. A permanent colostomy (Choice C) is typically considered in severe cases where other interventions have failed and is not the standard management approach for Hirschsprung disease.

3. What intervention best meets a major developmental need of a newborn in the immediate postoperative period?

• A. Giving a pacifier to the newborn
• B. Putting a mobile over the newborn’s crib
• C. Providing the newborn with a soft, cuddly toy
• D. Warming the newborn’s formula before feeding

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is giving a pacifier to the newborn. Sucking is a natural reflex and a source of comfort for newborns, especially postoperatively. A pacifier can help meet their developmental needs by providing soothing comfort. Choices B, C, and D do not directly address the major developmental need related to the newborn's comfort and reflexes postoperatively. Putting a mobile over the crib, providing a cuddly toy, or warming formula, although potentially beneficial in other contexts, do not specifically target the developmental need of sucking for comfort. Offering a pacifier is a safe and effective way to address this developmental need in newborns.

4. When developing the plan of care for a child with burns requiring fluid replacement therapy, what information would the nurse expect to include?

• A. Administration of colloid initially followed by a crystalloid
• B. Determination of fluid replacement based on the type of burn
• C. Administration of most of the volume during the first 8 hours
• D. Monitoring of hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. In fluid replacement therapy for burns, the majority of the volume should be administered within the first 8 hours to prevent shock and maintain perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because crystalloids are typically administered first in fluid resuscitation for burns. Choice B is incorrect as fluid replacement in burn patients is primarily determined by the extent of the burn injury rather than the type of burn. Choice D is incorrect as the goal for hourly urine output in burn patients is generally higher, aiming for 1-2 mL/kg/hr in children to ensure adequate renal perfusion and prevent dehydration.

5. During a clinical conference with a group of nursing students, the instructor is describing burn classifications. The instructor determines that the teaching has been successful when the group identifies what as characteristic of full-thickness burns?

• A. Skin that is reddened, dry, and slightly swollen
• B. Skin appearing wet with significant pain
• C. Skin with blistering and swelling
• D. Skin that is leathery and dry with some numbness

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Full-thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, are characterized by a leathery, dry appearance with numbness due to nerve damage. This type of burn extends through all layers of the skin, affecting nerve endings. Choice A describes characteristics of superficial partial-thickness burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis. Choice B describes characteristics of superficial burns, or first-degree burns, which only affect the epidermis. Choice C describes characteristics of superficial to mid-dermal burns, also known as second-degree burns, which involve the epidermis and part of the dermis but do not extend through all skin layers. Therefore, the correct answer is D.

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