HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Test Bank
1. What is an early sign of congestive heart failure that the nurse should recognize?
- A. tachypnea
- B. bradycardia
- C. inability to sweat
- D. increased urinary output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Tachypnea is an early sign of congestive heart failure that nurses should recognize. Tachypnea refers to rapid breathing, which can be an indication of the body's attempt to compensate for decreased cardiac output in congestive heart failure. Bradycardia (choice B) is a slow heart rate and is not typically associated with congestive heart failure. Inability to sweat (choice C) and increased urinary output (choice D) are not specific early signs of congestive heart failure and are not typically recognized as such.
2. A 6-month-old infant is diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. What explanation should the nurse provide to the parents about this condition?
- A. It is a condition affecting the respiratory and digestive systems.
- B. It is an autoimmune disorder affecting multiple organs.
- C. It is a genetic disorder that can be managed with medication.
- D. It is a condition caused by prenatal exposure to toxins.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'It is a condition affecting the respiratory and digestive systems.' Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that primarily affects the respiratory and digestive systems. It is caused by a defective gene that leads to the production of thick and sticky mucus in these organs. This mucus can clog airways in the lungs and block the ducts in the pancreas, affecting digestion. Choice B is incorrect because cystic fibrosis is not an autoimmune disorder; it is a genetic condition. Choice C is partially correct in that cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder, but merely managing it with medication oversimplifies the comprehensive care needed for individuals with cystic fibrosis. Choice D is incorrect as cystic fibrosis is not caused by prenatal exposure to toxins but is a genetic condition inherited from parents.
3. The parents of a 6-month-old infant are concerned about the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). What should the nurse recommend to reduce the risk?
- A. Place the infant on their back to sleep
- B. Use a pacifier during sleep
- C. Have the infant sleep on their side
- D. Keep the infant's room cool
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct recommendation to reduce the risk of SIDS in infants is to place them on their back to sleep. This sleeping position helps prevent the occurrence of SIDS by maintaining an open airway and reducing the risk of suffocation. Using a pacifier during sleep has also shown some protective effect against SIDS, but it is not as effective as placing the infant on their back. Having the infant sleep on their side is not recommended as it can increase the risk of accidental suffocation. Keeping the infant's room cool does not directly reduce the risk of SIDS.
4. What should be the priority action when caring for a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis?
- A. Initiate measures to reduce fever.
- B. Ensure delivery of humidified oxygen.
- C. Provide support to reduce apprehension.
- D. Continually assess the respiratory status.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The priority action when caring for a child with acute laryngotracheobronchitis is to continually assess the respiratory status (Option D). Acute laryngotracheobronchitis can potentially lead to respiratory distress, making continuous monitoring crucial to identify early signs of deterioration and intervene promptly. While options A, B, and C are also important aspects of care, they do not take precedence over respiratory assessment in this critical situation. Initiating measures to reduce fever (Option A), ensuring oxygen delivery (Option B), and providing emotional support (Option C) are all significant interventions, but without ongoing assessment of respiratory status, there is a risk of missing potential respiratory deterioration.
5. What complication of mumps is crucial for adolescents to prevent?
- A. Sterility
- B. Hypopituitarism
- C. Decreased libido
- D. Decreased androgens
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A, Sterility. Mumps can lead to sterility, particularly in adolescent males, highlighting the significance of vaccination to prevent this serious complication. While hypopituitarism (choice B) can be a potential complication of mumps, it is not as crucial to prevent in adolescents compared to the risk of sterility. Choices C and D, Decreased libido and Decreased androgens, are not direct complications of mumps and are not the primary concerns for adolescents in relation to mumps prevention.
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