Nursing Elites

1. Upon assessing a newborn immediately after delivery, you note that the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate of 90 beats/min. What is the most appropriate initial management for this newborn?

• A. begin positive pressure ventilations
• B. provide blow-by oxygen with oxygen tubing
• C. assess the newborn's skin condition and color
• D. start chest compressions and contact medical control

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate below 100 beats/min in a newborn indicates the need for positive pressure ventilation to improve oxygenation. Providing positive pressure ventilations helps in assisting the newborn's breathing efforts to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choice B, providing blow-by oxygen, may not be sufficient to address the underlying issue of inadequate breathing. Choice C, assessing the newborn's skin condition and color, is important but not the most immediate action needed for a heart rate below 100 beats/min. Choice D, starting chest compressions, is not indicated as the infant is breathing spontaneously and has a heart rate, albeit lower than normal, which does not warrant chest compressions.

2. An infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS) is admitted to the pediatric unit. What does the nurse expect to find when palpating the infant’s abdomen?

• A. A distended colon
• B. Marked tenderness around the umbilicus
• C. An olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant
• D. Rhythmic peristaltic waves in the lower abdomen

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When palpating the abdomen of an infant with hypertrophic pyloric stenosis (HPS), the nurse would expect to feel an olive-sized mass in the right upper quadrant. This finding is characteristic of HPS, where the hypertrophied pyloric muscle forms a palpable mass in the abdomen. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. A distended colon is not a typical finding in HPS, marked tenderness around the umbilicus is not specific to this condition, and rhythmic peristaltic waves in the lower abdomen are not associated with HPS.

3. A 12-month-old infant has become immunosuppressed during a course of chemotherapy. When preparing the parents for the infant’s discharge, what information should the nurse give concerning the measles, mumps, and rubella (MMR) immunization?

• A. It should not be given until the infant reaches 2 years of age.
• B. Infants who are receiving chemotherapy should not be given these vaccines.
• C. It should be given to protect the infant from contracting any of these diseases.
• D. The parents should discuss this with their health care provider at the next visit.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Live vaccines like MMR should not be given to immunosuppressed infants because their weakened immune systems may not handle the vaccine safely. Choice A is incorrect as delaying the MMR vaccine until the infant reaches 2 years of age does not address the issue of immunosuppression. Choice C is incorrect because administering live vaccines to an immunosuppressed individual could lead to serious complications. Choice D is incorrect as immediate action is required to prevent potential harm to the immunosuppressed infant.

4. A healthcare professional is teaching a class of new parents about how to position their infants during the first few weeks of life. Which position is safest?

• A. On the back, lying flat
• B. On either side, lying flat
• C. Head slightly elevated on the left side
• D. Head slightly elevated on the right side

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'On the back, lying flat.' Placing infants on their back to sleep is recommended to reduce the risk of sudden infant death syndrome (SIDS). This position promotes safe sleep practices and helps prevent accidental suffocation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as placing infants on their side or with the head slightly elevated may increase the risk of breathing difficulties or other hazards during sleep.

5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the clinical records of infants and children with cardiac disorders who developed heart failure. What did the healthcare professional determine is the last sign of heart failure?

• A. Tachypnea
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Periorbital edema

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Peripheral edema is often the last sign of heart failure in infants and children as it indicates significant fluid retention and circulatory compromise. Tachypnea (Choice A) and tachycardia (Choice B) are early signs of heart failure due to the body's compensatory mechanisms. Periorbital edema (Choice D) can occur in heart failure but is not typically the last sign; it is more commonly associated with renal or hepatic dysfunction.

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