HESI LPN
Pediatric HESI Test Bank
1. Before starting kindergarten, the child should receive boosters of which primary immunizations to ensure ongoing protection?
- A. IPV, HepB, Td.
- B. DTaP, HepB, Td.
- C. MMR, DTaP, Hib.
- D. DTaP, IPV, MMR.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Before starting kindergarten, the child should receive boosters of DTaP, IPV, and MMR. DTaP provides protection against diphtheria, tetanus, and pertussis, IPV protects against polio, and MMR immunization covers measles, mumps, and rubella. These boosters are essential to maintain immunity and protect the child from these diseases as they enter school. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because they do not include the recommended boosters for kindergarten entry and may leave the child susceptible to certain infections.
2. A mother brings her child, who has a history of asthma, to the emergency room. The child is wheezing and speaking one word between each breath. The child is anxious, tachycardic, and has labored respirations. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Type of inhaler the child typically uses on a regular basis
- B. Frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week
- C. Last dose and type of rescue inhaler used by the child
- D. Type of allergen exposure or trigger for the current episode
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C because knowing the last dose and type of rescue inhaler used helps assess if the child has received adequate treatment and if further intervention is needed. This information is crucial in managing an acute asthma exacerbation. Choice A, the type of inhaler the child typically uses, is less critical during an emergency. Choice B, the frequency of rescue inhaler use during the week, is important for general asthma management but does not provide immediate guidance in the acute situation. Choice D, the type of allergen exposure or trigger, is more relevant for preventive strategies and does not directly impact the immediate treatment of the child's acute asthma attack.
3. A 73-year-old female client had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip yesterday due to a fracture resulting from a fall. In reviewing hip precautions with the client, which instruction should the LPN/LVN include in this client's teaching plan?
- A. You will be able to bend at the waist to reach items on the floor in 8 weeks.
- B. Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.
- C. It is safe to use a walker to get out of bed, but you need assistance when walking.
- D. Take pain medication 30 minutes after your physical therapy sessions.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct instruction to include in the teaching plan for a client who had a hemiarthroplasty of the left hip is to 'Place a pillow between your knees while lying in bed to prevent hip dislocation.' This technique helps maintain proper hip alignment and prevents dislocation during the postoperative recovery period. Choice A is incorrect because bending at the waist to reach items on the floor can strain the hip joint and is not recommended following hip surgery. Choice C is incorrect because using a walker alone without assistance can increase the risk of falls and injury, especially in the immediate postoperative period. Choice D is incorrect because pain medication should be taken as prescribed by the healthcare provider, not specifically timed after physical therapy sessions.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed linagliptin, it is crucial to educate them to report any signs of pancreatitis to their healthcare provider. Linagliptin can lead to pancreatitis, making it essential for clients to be vigilant for symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Timely reporting of these symptoms can aid in early intervention and management of pancreatitis.
5. When developing the plan of care for a child with burns requiring fluid replacement therapy, what information would the nurse expect to include?
- A. Administration of colloid initially followed by a crystalloid
- B. Determination of fluid replacement based on the type of burn
- C. Administration of most of the volume during the first 8 hours
- D. Monitoring of hourly urine output to achieve less than 1 mL/kg/hr
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. In fluid replacement therapy for burns, the majority of the volume should be administered within the first 8 hours to prevent shock and maintain perfusion. Choice A is incorrect because crystalloids are typically administered first in fluid resuscitation for burns. Choice B is incorrect as fluid replacement in burn patients is primarily determined by the extent of the burn injury rather than the type of burn. Choice D is incorrect as the goal for hourly urine output in burn patients is generally higher, aiming for 1-2 mL/kg/hr in children to ensure adequate renal perfusion and prevent dehydration.