HESI LPN
Medical Surgical Assignment Exam HESI
1. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?
- A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
- B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
- D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.
2. A client who experienced partial-thickness burns with over 50% body surface area (BSA) 2 weeks ago suddenly becomes restless and agitated.
- A. Increase the room temperature.
- B. Assess the oxygen saturation.
- C. Continue to monitor vital signs.
- D. Notify the rapid response team.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a burn patient with sudden restlessness and agitation, it is crucial to consider hypoxia or other critical conditions. As such, notifying the rapid response team is the most appropriate action to ensure prompt assessment and intervention. Increasing room temperature (Choice A) is not the priority in this scenario. While monitoring vital signs (Choice C) is important, the sudden change in behavior warrants immediate action. Assessing oxygen saturation (Choice B) is a step in the right direction, but involving the rapid response team ensures a comprehensive evaluation and timely management of the patient's condition.
3. A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?
- A. Evaluate distal capillary refill for delayed perfusion
- B. Check the extremities for bruising and petechiae
- C. Examine the peritibial regions for pitting edema
- D. Palpate the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.
4. Based on the interpretation of this strip, what action should be implemented first?
- A. Call a code.
- B. Start CPR.
- C. Administer IV fluids.
- D. Apply oxygen.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Call a code.' In the context of ventricular fibrillation (V-Fib), immediate defibrillation is crucial. Calling a code is the first step to activating the emergency response team, including individuals trained to provide defibrillation. Starting CPR (Choice B) may be necessary but should follow defibrillation. Administering IV fluids (Choice C) and applying oxygen (Choice D) are important interventions in cardiac arrest cases, but in V-Fib, the priority is defibrillation to restore normal heart rhythm.
5. An 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis complains to the nurse that she has a hard time cutting her toenails. What should the nurse recommend?
- A. Seek routine nail care with a podiatrist.
- B. Encourage monthly pedicures at a nail salon.
- C. Soak feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails.
- D. Ask a family member to cut toenails.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: For an 82-year-old female client with type 2 diabetes and degenerative arthritis, the nurse should recommend seeking routine nail care with a podiatrist. This is crucial to ensure proper and safe toenail care, reducing the risk of injury and infection, which is especially important for diabetic clients. Encouraging monthly pedicures at a nail salon (choice B) may not address the underlying issues related to diabetes and arthritis. Soaking feet for 10 minutes before cutting nails (choice C) may help soften the nails but does not address the difficulty the client faces in cutting them. Asking a family member to cut toenails (choice D) may not guarantee the expertise needed for proper diabetic foot care, which a podiatrist can provide.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access