Nursing Elites

1. The nurse uses a diagram to show that the tetralogy of Fallot involves a combination of four congenital defects. What are the defects?

• A. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, left ventricular hypertrophy
• B. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• C. Aortic stenosis, atrial septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy
• D. Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, aortic hypertrophy, left ventricular hypertrophy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pulmonary stenosis, ventricular septal defect, overriding aorta, right ventricular hypertrophy. Tetralogy of Fallot involves these four congenital defects. Choice A is incorrect because it includes aortic stenosis instead of pulmonary stenosis, atrial septal defect instead of ventricular septal defect, and left ventricular hypertrophy instead of right ventricular hypertrophy. Choice C is incorrect as it includes aortic stenosis and atrial septal defect instead of pulmonary stenosis and ventricular septal defect. Choice D is incorrect because it includes aortic hypertrophy instead of overriding aorta.

2. A client with cirrhosis is receiving lactulose. What is the desired effect of this medication?

• A. Decrease blood glucose levels
• B. Reduce serum ammonia levels
• C. Increase platelet count
• D. Lower serum bilirubin levels

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduce serum ammonia levels. Lactulose is used to reduce serum ammonia levels in clients with cirrhosis, helping to prevent hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose works by acidifying the colon, trapping ammonia for excretion. Decreasing blood glucose levels (choice A) is not the primary effect of lactulose. Increasing platelet count (choice C) and lowering serum bilirubin levels (choice D) are not direct effects of lactulose in the management of cirrhosis.

3. A client who was discharged 8 months ago with cirrhosis and ascites is admitted with anorexia and recent hemoptysis. The client is drowsy but responds to verbal stimuli. The nurse programs a blood pressure monitor to take readings every 15 minutes. Which assessment should the nurse implement first?

• A. Evaluate distal capillary refill for delayed perfusion
• B. Check the extremities for bruising and petechiae
• C. Examine the peritibial regions for pitting edema
• D. Palpate the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a history of cirrhosis and ascites presenting with anorexia and recent hemoptysis, palpating the abdomen for tenderness and rigidity is crucial as it helps in identifying signs of complications related to these conditions. Assessing for abdominal tenderness and rigidity can provide valuable information about the presence of internal bleeding, ascites complications, or liver enlargement. Evaluating distal capillary refill, checking for bruising and petechiae, or examining peritibial regions for pitting edema are important assessments but are not the priority in this case, given the client's history and current symptoms.

4. What is the major criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child?

• A. An IQ of 75 or less
• B. Subaverage functioning
• C. An IQ of 70 or less
• D. Onset before 18

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct criterion for diagnosing cognitive impairment in a child is having an IQ of 70 or less. This range is typically used to define cognitive impairment in children. Choice A ('An IQ of 75 or less') is incorrect as the threshold is generally set at 70 or below. Choice B ('Subaverage functioning') is vague and does not specifically address the IQ criterion. Choice D ('Onset before 18') is unrelated to the primary criterion of IQ level used in diagnosing cognitive impairment in children.

5. A middle-aged man who has a 35-year smoking history presents to the emergency department confused and short of breath. Before starting oxygen, these baseline arterial blood gases (ABGs) are obtained: pH=7.25, pCO2=50 mmHg, HCO3=30 mEq/L. These findings indicate to the nurse that the client is experiencing which acid-base imbalance?

• A. Metabolic acidosis.
• B. Respiratory acidosis.
• C. Metabolic alkalosis.
• D. Respiratory alkalosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The ABG results show a low pH (acidosis) and increased pCO2, indicating respiratory acidosis. In respiratory acidosis, the lungs cannot remove enough CO2, leading to its accumulation in the blood. This often occurs in conditions like COPD and is consistent with the patient's smoking history. Metabolic acidosis (choice A) is characterized by low pH and low HCO3 levels. Metabolic alkalosis (choice C) is marked by high pH and high HCO3 levels. Respiratory alkalosis (choice D) presents with high pH and low pCO2.

Similar Questions