HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. The nurse is assessing a client with an IV infusion of normal saline. The client reports pain and swelling at the IV site. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Slow the rate of infusion
- B. Apply a warm compress to the site
- C. Elevate the affected arm
- D. Discontinue the IV infusion
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to discontinue the IV infusion. Pain and swelling at the IV site may indicate infiltration or phlebitis, which requires immediate discontinuation of the infusion to prevent further complications. Continuing the infusion can lead to tissue damage or infection. Slowing the rate of infusion, applying a warm compress, or elevating the affected arm would not address the underlying issue of infiltration or phlebitis and could potentially worsen the condition by allowing more fluid to infiltrate the tissues.
2. After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives a report of the X-ray findings indicating that the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure for 5 minutes.
- B. Initiate intravenous fluids as prescribed.
- C. Secure the catheter using aseptic technique.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Initiating intravenous fluids as prescribed is the appropriate action when the CVC tip is correctly placed in the superior vena cava. Intravenous fluids can now be administered effectively through the central line. Removing the catheter and applying direct pressure is unnecessary and not indicated as the tip is in the correct position. Securing the catheter using aseptic technique is important for preventing infections but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter may delay necessary fluid administration, which is the priority at this time.
3. The client is 4 hours post-operative from a cesarean section and complains of gas pain and bloating. What non-pharmacological intervention can the nurse provide?
- A. Encourage the client to ambulate
- B. Apply a heating pad
- C. Provide a carbonated beverage
- D. Teach relaxation techniques
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to encourage the client to ambulate. Early ambulation helps alleviate gas pain and bloating by promoting gastrointestinal motility and reducing the accumulation of gas in the abdomen. Applying a heating pad may provide comfort for some types of pain but is not specifically effective for gas pain. Providing a carbonated beverage can actually worsen gas pain due to the introduction of more gas into the digestive system. Teaching relaxation techniques may be beneficial for overall comfort but may not directly address the gas pain and bloating experienced post-cesarean section.
4. A client with a history of congestive heart failure is prescribed digoxin (Lanoxin). Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain before administering this medication?
- A. Blood pressure
- B. Heart rate
- C. Respiratory rate
- D. Oxygen saturation
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Heart rate. Before administering digoxin to a client with a history of congestive heart failure, the nurse must assess the client's heart rate. Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so monitoring the heart rate is crucial to prevent potential complications. Assessing blood pressure, respiratory rate, and oxygen saturation are important assessments but are not as directly influenced by digoxin as heart rate is in this scenario. Blood pressure can be affected by various factors, including dehydration or other medications. Respiratory rate and oxygen saturation are more related to respiratory function and gas exchange, which are not the primary concerns when administering digoxin to a client with heart failure.
5. A client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) is receiving erythropoietin therapy. What is the primary purpose of this medication?
- A. To lower blood pressure
- B. To improve appetite
- C. To increase red blood cell production
- D. To reduce fluid retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'To increase red blood cell production.' Erythropoietin stimulates the production of red blood cells to treat anemia associated with CKD. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because erythropoietin therapy is primarily used to address anemia by increasing the production of red blood cells rather than lowering blood pressure, improving appetite, or reducing fluid retention.
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