HESI LPN
Adult Health Exam 1 Chamberlain
1. During a routine prenatal visit, a nurse measures a client’s fundal height at 26 weeks gestation. What should the fundal height be?
- A. Approximately 26 cm
- B. Between 24 to 28 cm
- C. Above the umbilicus by two finger widths
- D. Below the xiphoid process
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Between 24 to 28 cm.' Fundal height is expected to be approximately equal to the weeks of gestation, so at 26 weeks, the fundal height should typically range between 24 to 28 cm. Choice A is incorrect because fundal height is not an exact measurement of gestational age in centimeters. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a general description above the umbilicus, which is not specific to 26 weeks gestation. Choice D is incorrect as the fundal height would not reach below the xiphoid process at 26 weeks gestation.
2. Based on the documentation in the medical record, which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Administer the rubella vaccine subcutaneously
- B. Observe the mother breastfeeding her infant
- C. Call the nursery for the infant's blood type result
- D. Administer Vicodin one tablet for pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to observe the mother breastfeeding her infant. This action is essential to ensure that the infant is feeding well and to assess maternal-infant bonding. Administering the rubella vaccine subcutaneously (Option A) is not the immediate priority in this scenario as assessing breastfeeding is more crucial. Calling the nursery for the infant's blood type result (Option C) is premature and not the next appropriate step, as it does not address the immediate needs of the newborn. Administering Vicodin one tablet for pain (Option D) is not indicated without further assessment or indication of pain, making it an incorrect choice at this time.
3. The nurse assigns an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) to feed a client who is at risk for aspiration. What action should the nurse take to ensure safety?
- A. Inform the UAP that suction is available at the bedside.
- B. Instruct the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes.
- C. Observe the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding.
- D. Ask the UAP about previous experience in performing this skill.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Observing the UAP's ability to implement precautions during feeding is crucial to ensuring the client's safety, especially when there is a risk of aspiration. This hands-on observation allows the nurse to assess whether the UAP is competent in handling the feeding procedure safely. Informing the UAP about suction availability (Choice A) is important but does not directly assess the UAP's ability during feeding. Instructing the UAP to notify the nurse if the client chokes (Choice B) focuses on reactive measures rather than proactive supervision. Asking about previous experience (Choice D) does not provide real-time information on the UAP's current competency in handling the specific feeding task for the at-risk client.
4. The nurse is preparing a client for discharge following a myocardial infarction. What should the nurse prioritize in the discharge instructions?
- A. Warning signs of a potential heart attack
- B. Importance of medication adherence
- C. Follow-up appointment details
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When preparing a client for discharge after a myocardial infarction, the nurse should prioritize providing comprehensive instructions. This includes educating the client about warning signs of a potential heart attack to recognize symptoms early, stressing the importance of medication adherence for optimal recovery and prevention of further cardiac events, and ensuring understanding of follow-up appointment details for ongoing monitoring and care. All these aspects are crucial in preventing complications and promoting the client's well-being. Therefore, selecting 'All of the above' as the correct answer is the most appropriate choice. Choices A, B, and C are all essential components of a holistic discharge plan for a client post-myocardial infarction.
5. The nurse is assessing a client with congestive heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?
- A. Sodium level
- B. Potassium level
- C. Calcium level
- D. Chloride level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Potassium level. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can cause potassium loss, leading to hypokalemia. Monitoring the potassium level is crucial to prevent complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Sodium level (choice A) is not typically affected by furosemide. Calcium level (choice C) and chloride level (choice D) are also not the primary focus of monitoring when a client is on furosemide for heart failure.
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