Nursing Elites

1. Two days after an abdominal hysterectomy, an elderly female with diabetes has a syncopal episode. The nurse determines that her vital signs are within normal limits, but her blood sugar is 325 mg/dL or 18.04 mmol/L (SI). What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin per sliding scale
• B. Cancel the client's dinner tray
• C. Give the client 4 ounces (120 mL) of orange juice
• D. Administer the next scheduled dose of metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should implement the intervention of administering regular insulin per sliding scale. High blood sugar levels, as indicated by a reading of 325 mg/dL, require insulin administration to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia. Canceling the client's dinner tray (choice B) would not address the immediate need to lower the blood sugar level. Giving the client orange juice (choice C) might further increase the blood sugar level as it contains sugar. Administering the next scheduled dose of metformin (choice D) is not appropriate as metformin is not typically used for acute management of high blood sugar levels.

2. A client is admitted with the diagnosis of Wernicke’s syndrome. What assessment finding should the nurse use in planning the client’s care?

• A. Right lower abdominal pain
• B. Confusion
• C. Depression
• D. Peripheral neuropathy

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Confusion is a key symptom of Wernicke’s syndrome, which is due to thiamine deficiency. Wernicke’s syndrome is characterized by a triad of symptoms known as the classic triad, which includes confusion, ataxia, and ophthalmoplegia. Right lower abdominal pain, depression, and peripheral neuropathy are not typically associated with Wernicke’s syndrome, making them incorrect choices for this question.

3. A client with diabetic peripheral neuropathy has been taking pregabalin for 4 days. Which finding indicates to the nurse that the medication is effective?

• A. Granulating tissue in foot ulcer
• B. Full volume of pedal pulse
• C. Reduced level of pain
• D. Improved visual activity

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Reduced level of pain.' Pregabalin is used to manage neuropathic pain, so a reduction in pain indicates the medication's effectiveness in this case. Granulating tissue in a foot ulcer and the full volume of a pedal pulse are not direct indicators of pregabalin's effectiveness in managing neuropathic pain. Improved visual activity is not related to the effects of pregabalin in diabetic peripheral neuropathy.

4. A client with a history of dementia has become increasingly confused at night and is picking at an abdominal surgical dressing and the tape securing the intravenous (IV) line. The abdominal dressing is no longer occlusive, and the IV insertion site is pink. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Replace the IV site with a smaller gauge.
• B. Redress the abdominal incision.
• C. Leave the lights on in the room at night.
• D. Apply soft bilateral wrist restraints.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with dementia who is becoming increasingly confused at night and interfering with dressings and IV lines is to leave the lights on in the room at night. This intervention can help reduce confusion and disorientation. Choice A is incorrect because changing the IV site gauge is not the priority in this situation. Choice B is not necessary unless there are signs of infection or other complications at the abdominal incision site, which are not mentioned in the scenario. Choice D should be avoided as using restraints should be a last resort and is not indicated in this case.

5. The nurse is making assignments for a new graduate from a practical nursing program who is orienting to the unit. Because the unit is particularly busy this day, there will be little time to provide supervision of this new employee. Which client is the best for the nurse to assign this newly graduate practical nurse? A client

• A. Whose discharge has been delayed because of a postoperative infection
• B. With poorly controlled type 2 diabetes who is on a sliding scale for insulin administration
• C. Newly admitted with a head injury who requires frequent assessments
• D. Who is receiving IV heparin that is regulated based on protocol

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is option A because this client is the most stable and requires less supervision. Assigning a client whose discharge has been delayed due to a postoperative infection to the newly graduate practical nurse would be appropriate during a busy day as they are likely to need routine care and monitoring rather than immediate intensive interventions. Option B involves a client with poorly controlled type 2 diabetes on a sliding scale for insulin administration, which requires close monitoring and prompt intervention, making it a less suitable assignment for a new graduate who may need more guidance. Option C, a newly admitted patient with a head injury requiring frequent assessments, would demand a higher level of vigilance and expertise, which may be challenging for a new graduate nurse to handle without adequate supervision. Option D, a patient receiving IV heparin regulated based on protocol, involves complex medication management that may be too advanced for a new graduate nurse without sufficient oversight.

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