Nursing Elites

1. Two days after an abdominal hysterectomy, an elderly female with diabetes has a syncopal episode. The nurse determines that her vital signs are within normal limits, but her blood sugar is 325 mg/dL or 18.04 mmol/L (SI). What intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer regular insulin per sliding scale
• B. Cancel the client's dinner tray
• C. Give the client 4 ounces (120 mL) of orange juice
• D. Administer the next scheduled dose of metformin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this case, the nurse should implement the intervention of administering regular insulin per sliding scale. High blood sugar levels, as indicated by a reading of 325 mg/dL, require insulin administration to prevent complications such as hyperglycemia. Canceling the client's dinner tray (choice B) would not address the immediate need to lower the blood sugar level. Giving the client orange juice (choice C) might further increase the blood sugar level as it contains sugar. Administering the next scheduled dose of metformin (choice D) is not appropriate as metformin is not typically used for acute management of high blood sugar levels.

2. The nurse is planning care for a family whose children did not receive childhood immunizations. After one of the children contracted mumps, the father is diagnosed with orchitis. Which intervention should be included in the father's plan of care?

• A. Use of bedrest with scrotal support
• B. Administration of antibiotics for 10 days
• C. Applying heat to promote the healing process
• D. Using an ice pack to reduce scrotal pain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: For orchitis, the recommended intervention is bedrest with scrotal support. This helps reduce swelling and discomfort in the scrotum. Antibiotics are generally not required for viral orchitis, so administering antibiotics for 10 days (Choice B) is not indicated. Applying heat (Choice C) may worsen swelling and should be avoided. Using an ice pack (Choice D) is not the preferred method for managing orchitis; it may not be as effective as providing support and rest for the scrotum.

3. A female client reports she has not had a bowel movement for 3 days, but now is defecating frequent small amounts of liquid stool. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction
• B. Increase fluid intake to promote bowel regularity
• C. Provide a high-fiber diet to facilitate bowel movements
• D. Administer a stool softener

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Digitally check the client for a fecal impaction. Small, frequent liquid stools following constipation may indicate a fecal impaction. This intervention is crucial to assess and address a potential impaction promptly. Choices B, increasing fluid intake, and C, providing a high-fiber diet, may help with bowel regularity in general cases, but they don't directly address the urgent concern of a possible impaction. Choice D, administering a stool softener, is not appropriate as the first action when a fecal impaction is suspected; it could worsen the condition by causing further liquid stool output without addressing the impaction.

4. Three hours following a right carotid endarterectomy, the nurse notes a moderate amount of bloody drainage on the client’s dressing. Which additional assessment finding warrants immediate intervention by the nurse?

• A. Sore throat when swallowing
• B. Tongue deviation to the left
• C. Palpable temporal pulses
• D. Temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Tongue deviation to the left is the correct answer. It could indicate a complication such as nerve injury or hematoma, which requires immediate attention. A sore throat when swallowing may be expected postoperatively but does not indicate an immediate complication. Palpable temporal pulses are a normal finding and do not require immediate intervention. A temperature of 99.2°F (37.3°C) is slightly elevated but does not suggest a critical issue related to the surgery.

5. A client morning assessment includes bounding peripheral pulses, weight gain of 2 pounds, pitting ankle edema, and moist crackles bilaterally. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to include in this client’s plan of care?

• A. Restrict daily fluid intake to 1500 ml
• B. Weight the client every morning
• C. Maintain accurate intake and output
• D. Administer prescribed diuretic

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering a prescribed diuretic is the most important intervention in this scenario as the client is presenting signs of fluid overload and heart failure. Diuretics help reduce fluid retention in the body, alleviating symptoms like edema and crackles. Restricting fluid intake may be necessary in some cases, but in this acute situation, addressing the immediate fluid overload with a diuretic takes precedence. Weighing the client daily and maintaining accurate intake and output are important aspects of monitoring, but they do not directly address the urgent need to manage fluid overload.

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