Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

• A. Administration of cough suppressants
• B. Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day
• C. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges
• D. Performing chest physiotherapy twice a day

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

2. Health activities are designed to:

• A. prevent people from being exposed to germs
• B. ignore spiritual factors as they can confuse medical issues
• C. increase communities' control over their health and well-being
• D. ensure that the community health nurse leads health programs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Health activities are structured to enhance communities' autonomy and influence over their health and well-being, aiming to empower them to make informed choices and take control of their health. Choice A is incorrect as health activities encompass a broader scope beyond just preventing exposure to germs. Choice B is incorrect because spiritual factors are crucial components that should not be disregarded in healthcare. Choice D is incorrect as health activities are not solely about the community health nurse being in charge, but about empowering the community as a whole.

3. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

• A. Nausea and vomiting
• B. Restlessness and confusion
• C. Low-grade fever and cough
• D. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

4. A community health nurse is developing a program to decrease the incidence of Type 2 diabetes in the community. Which of the following interventions should be included?

• A. distributing brochures on managing diabetes
• B. conducting exercise classes at the community center
• C. providing free glucose monitors
• D. offering dietary counseling sessions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: conducting exercise classes at the community center. Regular physical activity plays a crucial role in preventing Type 2 diabetes by helping to maintain a healthy weight, improve insulin sensitivity, and regulate blood sugar levels. Distributing brochures (choice A) may raise awareness but might not lead to significant behavior change. Providing free glucose monitors (choice C) focuses on monitoring rather than prevention. Offering dietary counseling sessions (choice D) is important but focusing solely on diet may not address the comprehensive approach needed to prevent Type 2 diabetes.

5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

• A. Jaundice evident at 26 hours
• B. Hematocrit of 55%
• C. Serum bilirubin of 12 mg/dL
• D. Positive Coombs test

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

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