Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient with a diagnosis of urinary tract infection (UTI). Upon assessment, the nurse finds the patient confused and agitated. How will the nurse interpret these assessment findings?

• A. These are normal signs of aging.
• B. These are early signs of dementia.
• C. These are purely psychological in origin.
• D. These are common manifestations with UTIs.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The nurse should interpret confusion and agitation in an older adult patient with a UTI as common manifestations of the infection. In older patients, confusion is a primary symptom of a compromised state due to an acute urinary tract infection or fever. Choice A is incorrect as confusion and agitation are not normal signs of aging. Choice B is incorrect because these symptoms are more likely related to the UTI rather than early signs of dementia. Choice C is incorrect as confusion and agitation in this context are not purely psychological but are likely physiological responses to the UTI.

2. During a Weber test, what is an appropriate action for the nurse to take?

• A. Deliver a series of high-pitched sounds at random intervals.
• B. Place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead.
• C. Hold an activated tuning fork against the client's mastoid process.
• D. Whisper a series of words softly into one ear.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During a Weber test, the nurse should place an activated tuning fork in the middle of the client's forehead. This test is used to assess for lateralization of sound in a client with possible hearing issues. Choice A is incorrect because the Weber test does not involve delivering high-pitched sounds at random intervals. Choice C is incorrect as it describes the Rinne test, not the Weber test. Choice D is incorrect as whispering words into one ear is not part of the Weber test procedure.

3. During an integumentary assessment for a group of clients, a healthcare professional notes various skin findings. Which of the following findings should the professional recognize as requiring immediate intervention?

• A. Pallor
• B. Cyanosis
• C. Jaundice
• D. Erythema

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Cyanosis, a bluish discoloration of the skin, indicates inadequate oxygenation and requires immediate intervention. It suggests a severe lack of oxygen in the blood, which can be life-threatening. Pallor and jaundice are concerning findings but may not indicate an immediate life-threatening situation. Pallor can be a sign of anemia or low blood pressure, while jaundice may indicate liver dysfunction. Erythema, which is redness of the skin, is typically not an emergency and can be caused by various factors such as inflammation or increased blood flow to the area.

4. A nurse is caring for a competent adult client who tells the nurse, 'I am leaving the hospital this morning whether the doctor discharges me or not.' The nurse believes that this is not in the client’s best interest and prepares to administer a PRN sedative medication the client has not requested along with the scheduled morning medication. Which of the following types of tort is the nurse about to commit?

• A. Assault
• B. False imprisonment
• C. Negligence
• D. Breach of confidentiality

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The nurse is about to commit false imprisonment by unlawfully restricting the client's freedom of movement. In this scenario, the nurse's actions of preparing to administer sedative medication against the client's will in an effort to prevent them from leaving the hospital constitute false imprisonment. Assault (choice A) involves the threat of bodily harm, which is not present here. Negligence (choice C) refers to a breach in the duty of care, which is not the primary issue in this situation. Breach of confidentiality (choice D) involves disclosing confidential information without consent, which is unrelated to the scenario described.

5. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

• A. Droplet
• B. Contact
• C. Airborne
• D. Protective

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.

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