Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?

• A. Dry mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased heart rate
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.

2. A client with a history of alcoholism is admitted with confusion and ataxia. The LPN/LVN recognizes that these symptoms may be related to a deficiency in which vitamin?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin D
• D. Vitamin B1 (Thiamine)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is Vitamin B1 (Thiamine). Vitamin B1 deficiency, also known as Thiamine deficiency, is common in clients with a history of alcoholism. Thiamine is essential for proper brain function, and its deficiency can lead to neurological symptoms such as confusion and ataxia. Vitamin A, C, and D deficiencies do not typically present with confusion and ataxia in the context of alcoholism. Vitamin A deficiency mainly affects vision, Vitamin C deficiency leads to scurvy with symptoms like bleeding gums, and Vitamin D deficiency is associated with bone disorders. Therefore, they are not the correct choices in this scenario.

3. A healthcare professional is planning care for a female client who has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following actions should the healthcare professional include in the plan?

• A. Empty the drainage bag at least every 8 hours
• B. Keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder
• C. Use sterile technique to collect a specimen from the drainage system
• D. Secure the catheter to the lower abdomen with a securement device

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action to include in the plan is to keep the drainage bag below the level of the bladder. This positioning helps ensure proper drainage and prevents backflow of urine into the bladder, reducing the risk of urinary tract infections. Emptying the drainage bag regularly is important, typically every 4-8 hours or when it is half-full, to maintain adequate flow and prevent infection (Choice A is incorrect). Using a sterile technique to collect specimens from the drainage system is crucial to prevent introducing pathogens into the urinary tract, so clean technique should not be used (Choice C is incorrect). Taping the catheter to the lower abdomen is not recommended as it can cause tension on the catheter, leading to discomfort and potential trauma to the urethra (Choice D is incorrect).

4. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

5. A nurse observes an assistive personnel (AP) reprimanding a client for not using the urinal properly. The AP tells the client that diapers will be used next time the urinal is used improperly. Which of the following torts is the AP committing?

• A. Assault
• B. Battery
• C. False imprisonment
• D. Invasion of privacy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Assault. Assault involves making threats or using actions that cause the client to fear harm. In this scenario, the AP's threat to use diapers next time the urinal is used improperly constitutes as assault. Choice B, Battery, involves intentional harmful or offensive touching without consent, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice C, False imprisonment, refers to restraining or restricting a client's freedom of movement, which is not occurring in this situation. Choice D, Invasion of privacy, involves violating a client's right to privacy, which is also not applicable here.

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