HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased heart rate
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.
2. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?
- A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
- B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
- C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
- D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.
3. The charge nurse has a health care team that consists of 1 PN, 1 unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP), and 1 PN nursing student. Which assignment should be questioned by the nurse manager?
- A. An admission at the change of shifts with atrial fibrillation and heart failure - PN
- B. Client who had a major stroke 6 days ago - PN nursing student
- C. A child with burns who has packed cells and albumin IV running - charge nurse
- D. An elderly client who had a myocardial infarction a week ago - UAP
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Assigning an admission with atrial fibrillation and heart failure to a PN is not appropriate. This complex case requires more advanced skills and should not be managed by a PN without adequate support. The PN may not have the necessary training or expertise to handle such a critical situation effectively. Choice B is a suitable assignment for a PN nursing student as they can handle a client who had a major stroke 6 days ago. Choice C is also appropriate as a child with burns receiving packed cells and albumin IV running can be managed by the charge nurse. Choice D is within the scope of practice for a UAP since an elderly client post-myocardial infarction a week ago may require basic care and assistance.
4. A nurse is precepting a newly licensed nurse who is preparing to help a client perform tracheostomy care. The nurse should intervene if the equipment the preceptee gathered included:
- A. Cotton balls
- B. Sterile gloves
- C. A suction catheter
- D. Tracheostomy tubes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Cotton balls. Cotton balls are not suitable for tracheostomy care due to the risk of lint and contamination. When performing tracheostomy care, sterile supplies such as sterile gloves, a suction catheter, and tracheostomy tubes are essential. Sterile gloves are needed to maintain asepsis, a suction catheter is necessary for airway clearance, and tracheostomy tubes are crucial for maintaining a patent airway. Cotton balls should be avoided to prevent introducing lint or fibers into the tracheostomy site, which can lead to infection or airway obstruction.
5. A healthcare professional is using the I-SBAR communication tool to provide the client's provider with information about the client. The healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status in which portion of the report?
- A. Assessment
- B. Situation
- C. Background
- D. Recommendation
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the I-SBAR communication tool, the 'Assessment' portion is where the healthcare professional should convey the client's pain status. This section includes the current patient information, such as the client's pain level, to provide a comprehensive view of the client's condition. Choice B ('Situation') typically involves a brief summary of the client's problem or reason for the communication. Choice C ('Background') usually covers the client's medical history and background information. Choice D ('Recommendation') focuses on the healthcare professional's suggestions or requests regarding the client's care plan, which may include pain management strategies but not the current pain status.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access