HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with dehydration. Which assessment finding indicates that the client is responding to treatment?
- A. Dry mucous membranes
- B. Increased urine output
- C. Decreased heart rate
- D. Elevated blood pressure
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Increased urine output is the correct assessment finding that indicates the client is responding to treatment for dehydration. When a client is dehydrated, their urine output tends to decrease as the body tries to conserve fluids. Therefore, an increase in urine output suggests that the client's hydration status is improving. Dry mucous membranes (Choice A) are a sign of dehydration and would not indicate a positive response to treatment. Decreased heart rate (Choice C) and elevated blood pressure (Choice D) are not specific indicators of hydration status in a client with dehydration.
2. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
- B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
- C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
- D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.
3. A nurse is discussing the nursing process with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse should the nurse identify as appropriate for the planning step of the nursing process?
- A. “I will determine the most important client problems that we should address.”
- B. “I will review the past medical history on the client’s record to gather more information.”
- C. “I will carry out the new prescriptions from the provider.”
- D. “I will ask the client if their nausea has resolved.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In the nursing process, the planning step involves determining priorities and goals based on the identified problems. Choice A is correct as it reflects the nurse's role in identifying the most important client problems to address, which aligns with the planning phase. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B involves data collection, which is a part of the assessment phase, not planning. Choice C pertains to the implementation of care, which occurs after the planning phase. Choice D involves evaluation of a specific intervention, not planning.
4. A client is on bed rest. Which of the following interventions should the nurse plan to implement?
- A. Encourage the client to perform antiembolic exercises every 2 hours.
- B. Instruct the client to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours.
- C. Restrict the client’s fluid intake.
- D. Reposition the client every 4 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To prevent complications associated with prolonged bed rest, encouraging the client to perform antiembolic exercises every 2 hours is essential. These exercises help promote circulation and prevent blood clots. Instructing the client to cough and deep breathe every 4 hours is beneficial for respiratory function, but it is not as critical as antiembolic exercises. Repositioning the client every 4 hours helps prevent pressure ulcers and maintain skin integrity. Restricting fluid intake is not recommended, as hydration is important for overall health and well-being, especially for clients on bed rest.
5. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform on a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula?
- A. Assess the client's respiratory rate and effort.
- B. Measure the client's oxygen saturation level.
- C. Monitor the client's arterial blood gas levels.
- D. Check the client's blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Measuring the client's oxygen saturation level is the most important assessment in this scenario. Oxygen saturation level reflects how well the client is oxygenating, which is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of oxygen therapy for a client with COPD. Monitoring the respiratory rate and effort (Choice A) is important but assessing oxygenation with saturation levels takes precedence. While arterial blood gas levels (Choice C) provide comprehensive information, checking oxygen saturation is a quicker and more immediate way to assess oxygenation status. Checking blood pressure (Choice D) is not the priority when evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD.
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