Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
• B. Irregular heart rhythm
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

2. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue measuring the client's vital signs every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?

• A. Document the provider's directive in the medical record
• B. Notify the nursing manager
• C. Consult the facility's risk manager
• D. Complete an incident report

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is facing a critical situation with a client showing signs of hemorrhagic shock. The surgeon's directive of waiting for an hour without providing immediate intervention poses a risk to the client's well-being. The nurse should prioritize the client's safety and advocate for timely and appropriate care. Notifying the nursing manager is the correct action as it activates the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care promptly. Documenting the provider's directive, consulting the risk manager, or completing an incident report are not the immediate actions needed to address the client's deteriorating condition and ensure patient safety.

3. A client is in the radiology department at 0900 when the prescription levofloxacin (Levaquin) 500 mg IV q24h is scheduled to be administered. The client returns to the unit at 1300. What is the best intervention for the LPN/LVN to implement?

• A. Contact the healthcare provider and complete a medication variance form.
• B. Administer the Levaquin at 1300 and resume the 0900 schedule the next morning.
• C. Notify the charge nurse and complete an incident report to explain the missed dose.
• D. Give the missed dose at 1300 and change the schedule to administer daily at 1300.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct intervention is to give the missed dose at 1300 and adjust the schedule to administer daily at 1300. This approach ensures that the client receives the correct total daily dose of levofloxacin. Choice A is incorrect because contacting the healthcare provider and completing a medication variance form would not address the immediate need to administer the missed dose. Choice B is incorrect as administering the missed dose at 1300 and resuming the 0900 schedule the next morning would result in a missed dose for that day. Choice C is not the best course of action as notifying the charge nurse and completing an incident report should come after addressing the immediate need to administer the missed dose and adjusting the schedule for future doses.

4. An elderly male client who is unresponsive following a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is receiving bolus enteral feedings through a gastrostomy tube. What is the best client position for the administration of bolus tube feedings?

• A. Prone.
• B. Fowler's.
• C. Sims'.
• D. Supine.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is Fowler's position. Placing the client in Fowler's position, with the head of the bed elevated to 45-60 degrees, reduces the risk of aspiration during bolus enteral feedings by facilitating the flow of the feeding into the stomach. Prone position (choice A) is lying face down, which is not suitable for feeding. Sims' position (choice C) is a side-lying position used for rectal examinations or enemas, not for feeding. Supine position (choice D) is lying flat on the back and is not optimal for reducing the risk of aspiration during bolus tube feedings.

5. A client is receiving continuous IV fluid therapy via a peripheral vein in the left forearm. Which of the following findings indicates that the client has developed phlebitis at the IV site?

• A. Erythema along the path of the vein
• B. Pitting edema at the insertion site
• C. Coolness of the client’s left forearm
• D. Pallor of the client’s left forearm

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Erythema (redness) along the path of the vein is a classic sign of phlebitis, indicating inflammation of the vein. This occurs due to irritation or infection at the IV site. Pitting edema (choice B) is not typically associated with phlebitis but suggests fluid overload or poor circulation. Coolness (choice C) and pallor (choice D) of the forearm are not characteristic signs of phlebitis but may indicate impaired circulation or reduced blood flow to the area.

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