HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?
- A. Blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg
- B. Irregular heart rhythm
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Fatigue
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.
2. The LPN observes an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) taking a client's blood pressure with a cuff that is too small, but the blood pressure reading obtained is within the client's usual range. What action is most important for the nurse to implement?
- A. Tell the UAP to use a larger cuff at the next scheduled assessment.
- B. Reassess the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff.
- C. Have the unit educator review this procedure with the UAPs.
- D. Teach the UAP the correct technique for assessing blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Reassessing the client's blood pressure using a larger cuff is the most important action for the nurse to implement in this situation. Using the correct cuff size is crucial for obtaining accurate blood pressure readings. By reassessing with a larger cuff, the nurse can ensure an accurate measurement and proper monitoring of the client's blood pressure. Choice A is not the best option as it doesn't address the immediate need for accurate blood pressure measurement. Choice C is not the most appropriate action at this time since the immediate concern is ensuring correct blood pressure assessment. Choice D, while important, is not the most critical step in this scenario where immediate reassessment is needed with the correct cuff size.
3. When a nurse assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client, the next action by the nurse should be to
- A. Discuss the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
- B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of manipulative behavior
- C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
- D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a nurse experiences reluctance to interact with a manipulative client, it is essential to address these feelings constructively. Discussing the feeling of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor allows the nurse to gain perspective, reflect on the situation, and develop appropriate strategies for patient care. This action promotes self-awareness, professional growth, and ensures that patient care is not compromised. Option B is incorrect because avoiding the client may not address the underlying issues and can impact the therapeutic relationship. Option C is inappropriate as confronting the client may escalate the situation and hinder effective communication. Option D is not the immediate action needed in this scenario, as it focuses on behavior modification rather than addressing the nurse's feelings of reluctance.
4. A female UAP is assigned to take the vital signs of a client with pertussis for whom droplet precautions have been implemented. The UAP requests a change in assignment as she has not yet been fitted for a particulate filter mask. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Advise the UAP to wear a standard face mask to take vital signs, and then get fitted for a filter mask before providing personal care
- B. Send the UAP to be fitted for a particulate filter mask immediately so she can provide care to this client
- C. Instruct the UAP that a standard mask is sufficient for the provision of care for the assigned client
- D. Before changing assignments, determine which staff members have fitted particulate filter masks
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct course of action for the nurse is to determine which staff members have already been fitted for particulate filter masks before changing assignments. This ensures safety and compliance with infection control protocols. Option A is incorrect as wearing a standard face mask before being fitted for a filter mask does not address compliance with droplet precautions. Option B is incorrect because the priority is to ensure all staff members have appropriate equipment before providing care. Option C is incorrect as a standard mask may not offer sufficient protection when dealing with clients under droplet precautions.
5. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be
- A. Response to stimuli
- B. Bladder control
- C. Respiratory function
- D. Muscle strength
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.
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