the nurse is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation which assessment finding would be most concerning
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning assessment finding in a client with a history of atrial fibrillation. It can indicate a worsening of the condition, pulmonary edema, or the development of a complication such as heart failure. A blood pressure of 150/90 mmHg, while elevated, is not as immediately concerning as respiratory distress in this context. An irregular heart rhythm is expected in atrial fibrillation and may not necessarily be a new or concerning finding. Fatigue is a common symptom in atrial fibrillation but is not as acutely concerning as shortness of breath, which may indicate compromised oxygenation and circulation.

2. A nurse is planning care for a client who has hypernatremia. Which of the following actions should the nurse include in the plan of care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to infuse hypotonic IV fluids. In hypernatremia, there is an elevated sodium concentration in the blood, and diluting it with hypotonic fluids helps to lower the sodium levels. Implementing a fluid restriction or increasing sodium intake would worsen hypernatremia by further concentrating sodium in the body. Administering sodium polystyrene sulfonate is used for treating hyperkalemia, not hypernatremia.

3. To ensure the safety of a client receiving a continuous intravenous normal saline infusion, how often should the LPN change the administration set?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to change the administration set every 72 to 96 hours. This practice helps reduce the risk of infection by preventing the build-up of bacteria in the tubing. Changing the set too frequently (choices A, B, and C) may increase the chances of contamination and infection without providing additional benefits. Therefore, the LPN should follow the guideline of changing the administration set every 72 to 96 hours to maintain the client's safety during the continuous intravenous normal saline infusion.

4. A client is scheduled for a total laryngectomy. Which of the following interventions is the priority for the nurse?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The priority intervention for a client scheduled for a total laryngectomy is to explain the techniques of esophageal speech. This is crucial for the client's post-surgery communication. Option A, scheduling a support session, is important but not the priority as ensuring the client can communicate effectively comes first. Option C, reviewing the use of artificial larynx, is relevant but not the priority compared to teaching esophageal speech. Option D, determining the client's reading ability, is not as critical as ensuring the client learns a primary method of communication following the laryngectomy.

5. A client has pharyngeal diphtheria. Which of the following types of transmission precautions should the nurse initiate?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Pharyngeal diphtheria is transmitted via droplets, primarily through respiratory secretions. Therefore, droplet precautions are necessary to prevent the spread of the infection. Droplet precautions involve wearing a surgical mask, goggles, and a gown when within three feet of the client. Contact precautions are used for diseases transmitted by direct or indirect contact; airborne precautions are for diseases transmitted through airborne particles; protective precautions are not a standard precaution type.

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